Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each bit is independent from the others , then the random variable X= number of 0 s in the code word follows a binomial distribution, where
p(X)= n!/((n-x)!*x!*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= number of independent bits=5
x= number of 0 s
p= probability that a bit is 0 = 0.8
then for x=1
p(1) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1) = 5*0.8*0.2^4 = 0.0064 (0.64%)
therefore the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Answer: i cant graph but polt 0,4 on the y axis the go up 1 to the right 8
Step-by-step explanation:
The French had many alliances with the Indians and the British had more troops. The French has to deal with untrained troops.
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
Option D.
Step-by-step explanation:
we have
-----> equation A
-----> equation B
Solve the system by elimination
Multiply both sides equation A by -1
-----> equation C
Adds equation C and equation B
<em>Find the value of x</em>
substitute the value of y in either equation
The solution is the point (-1,2)
In this problem Option A,B and C are correct
The option D not result in a system with a pair of opposite terms
because
Multiply both sides of equation B by -3
-----> equation C
Multiply both sides of equation A by 5
----> equation D
so
equation C and equation D not have a pair of opposite terms
