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Annette [7]
3 years ago
12

The manager of a shoe store noticed that mukluks were flying off the shelf in anticipation of another exceptionally cold winter.

On November 1, the manager sent an order on the store's own form to a local manufacturer of mukluks for 100 pairs, at a cost of $90 a pair, the price listed in the manufacturer's catalogue. The manager filled in the delivery date as December 1 and signed the form. The next day, November 2, the manufacturer mailed a signed confirmation on its own form, which was the same in all respects except that it included a clause calling for arbitration of all disputes. Having found mukluks for $80 per pair from another supplier, the store manager phoned the manufacturer on November 4 and stated that the store no longer wished to order the boots. The manufacturer responded that it was too late, and that the store should expect delivery as promised in December. On November 5, the store manager received the manufacturer's confirmation. If the store manager subsequently refuses the manufacturer's delivery on December 1, who will prevail if the manufacturer sues the shoe store for breach of contract
Business
1 answer:
Margarita [4]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: The manufacturer, because the shoe store's revocation of its offer was too late.

Explanation:

Based on the scenario given in the question, if the store manager subsequently refuses the manufacturer's delivery on December 1, and thee manufacturer sues the shoe store for breach of contract, the manufacturer will prevail because the shoe store's revocation of its offer was too late.

According to the mailbox rule under the contract law, this is the default rule that's used to determine when an offer is considered to be accepted and when there's communication of the acceptance. In this case, the revocation is too late therefore the manufacturer will prevail.

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vampirchik [111]

Answer:

$2,100

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Prepaid rent account before adjustment at the end of the month = $2,800

And, the monthly rent is $700

So, the amount of prepaid rent after adjustment is

= Prepaid rent account before adjustment at the end of the month - the monthly rent

= $2,800 - $700

= $2,100

Basically we deduct the monthly rent from the prepaid rent balance before adjustment

7 0
3 years ago
(a) Where the parent company does not hold 100 percent equity of the subsidiary company, what portion of the intra-group transac
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

In point a:

If the parent firm doesn't hold the conglomerate's equity stake, depreciation expense acknowledged by the parent company's owner and expenditures shall be removed throughout the consolidated statement of financial position. Its combined cash flow deletes debts previously recognized as assets for both the parent corporation and as debts for all the subsidiaries to offer a real and equal view. All the intragroup balance should be removed to avoid double-counting of financial assets resulting from payments in between the group's members.

In point b:

If a parent company has a stake in a subsidiary that is called noncontrolling interest over 50%, but less than 99 percent. Its parent company shall report a different non-controlling interest line on the income statement and revenue report to reveal its noncontrolling interest.

In point c:

Its Group of non - management Concerns may not claim responsibility mostly on a share of a benefit, doesn't have any influence from over parent's decision. Intra-group payments in a word-level shall be removed.

In point d:

Its NCI share of the opening in net assets of the subsidiary + NCI share of even an amortization fair value + NCI profits due to NCI - (dividend payable to the noncontrolling shareholder) = unlawful interest at the date of the merger is three steps for the calculation of total the uncontrol value.

7 0
3 years ago
The type of listing agreement that provides for payment of a commission to the broker even though the owner makes the sale witho
nasty-shy [4]

The type of listing agreement that provides for payment of a commission to the broker even though the owner makes the sale without the broker's aid is called an exclusive right to sell a listing.

Listing of exclusive distribution rights

Listing of exclusive distribution rights is the most commonly used contract. In this type of listing agreement, an agent is appointed as the sole agent of the seller and has exclusive authority to represent the property.

A California Realtor Listing Agreement is an agreement that authorizes a broker to sell an owner's property on their behalf. The contract allows them to list the property, but in most cases gives them exclusive rights to the property transaction and potentially earnable commissions.

Learn more about listing agreement here: brainly.com/question/8186569

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5 0
1 year ago
A Las Vegas hotel wants to provide a better experience for its rapidly growing customer base from China. The hotel can best do t
Ainat [17]

Answer:

a

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Starbooks Corporation provides an online bookstore for electronic books. The following is a simplified list of accounts and amou
valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

The journal entries required as at 30 September,2015 as well as the post-closing trial balance are hereby attached.

Explanation:

In preparing the journal entries, the golden rule of double of entry which opined that for every debit there must a corresponding credit and versa.

This implies each transaction event has two impacts in the books of accounts,as a result,both must be shown to ensure proper of keeping records and smooth accounting processes.

Download xlsx
4 0
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