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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
13

The Thomlin Company forecasts that total overhead for the current year will be $11,415,000 with 180,000 total machine hours. Yea

r to date, the actual overhead is $7,948,000 and the actual machine hours are 88,000 hours. If the Thomlin Company uses a predetermined overhead rate based on machine hours for applying overhead, as of this point in time (year to date), the overhead is Round the factory overhead rate to the nearest dollar before multiplying by the number of hours.
a. $1,000,000 over
b. $1,000,000 under
c. $500,000 over
d. $500,000
Business
1 answer:
netineya [11]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Underapplied overhead = $2,367,040

Explanation:

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated overhead / Estimated activity

Predetermined overhead rate = $11,415,000 / 180,000

Predetermined overhead rate = $63.42 per MH

Applied overhead = Actual activity * Overhead rate

Applied overhead = 88,000 * $63.42 per MH

Applied overhead = $5,580,960

Overapplied/ (underapplied) = Actual overhead - Applied overhead

Underapplied overhead = $7,948,000 - $5,580,960

Underapplied overhead = $2,367,040

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anzhelika [568]

Answer:

Case 1. $850

Case 2. $2.300

Explanation:

  • Improvement in cottage would cost (250 + 600) = 850. So, increase in GDP is 850.
  • If he actually hired the painter total cost would be (1.000 + 250 + 450 + 600) = 2.300. So, increase in GDP is 2.300
8 0
3 years ago
Levelor Company's flexible budget shows $10,710 of overhead at 75% of capacity, which was the operating level achieved during Ma
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

The correct answer is $473 (Unfavorable).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Actual overhead = $11,183

Budgeted Overhead = $10,710

So, we can calculate the controllable variance by using following formula:

Controllable variance  = Actual overhead - Budgeted overhead

By putting the value, we get

Controllable variance  = $11,183 - $10,710

= $473 ( Positive shows unfavorable)

= $473 (unfavorable)

3 0
3 years ago
Benjamin Company had the following results of operations for the past year:Sales (16,000 units at $10.25) $164,000Direct materia
Mamont248 [21]

Answer:

Profit will increase by 5,975

Explanation:

From past year we can see that total variable cost will be:

Direct Material+Direct Labor+Variable Over head.

Total Variable Cost =100,000+20% of 20,000

Total Variable costs = 100,000+4000= 104,000

Per Unit Variable cost = Total Variable cost/Total Unit Produced

Per Unit Variable Cost = 104,000/16,000 = 6.5

If Benjamin accepts the offer results will be:

Sale (4,500*8.05) 36,225

Variable Cost (4,500*6.5) (29,250)

Incremental Fixed cost (650)

Incremental admin

and selling cost (350)

Operating Income 5,975

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Lincoln Park Co. has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 6.04 percent and semiannual payments. The yield to maturity is 6.1
Reil [10]

Answer:

value of the bond = $2,033.33

Explanation:

We know,

Value of the bond, B_{0} = [I * \frac{1 - (1 + i)^{-n}}{i}] + \frac{FV}{(1 + i)^n}

Here,

Face value of par value, FV = $2,000

Coupon payment, I = Face value or Par value × coupon rate

Coupon payment, I = $2,000 × 6.04%

Coupon payment, I = $128

yield to maturity, i = 6.1% = 0.061

number of years, n = 15

Therefore, putting the value in the formula, we can get,

B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1 + 0.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1 + 0.061)^7}]

or, B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1.061)^7}]

or, B_{0} = [128 * \frac{0.3393}{0.061}] + 1,321.3635

or, B_{0} = [128 * 5.5623] + 1,321.3635

or, B_{0} = $711.9738 + 1,321.3635

Therefore, value of the bond = $2,033.33

3 0
3 years ago
The purpose of a budget is to
galina1969 [7]
The purpose of a budget it to help you achieve your short-term and life-span goals
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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