Answer: D. Allocating some manufacturing overhead to each individual job
Explanation:
The first three steps to allocating manufacturing overhead are taken before the year begins does not involve allocating some manufacturing overhead to each individual job as this would affect the manufacturing process.
Answer:
The answer is (A)
<em>WAS</em><em> </em><em>THIS</em><em> </em><em>ANSWER</em><em> </em><em>HELPFUL</em><em>?</em><em> </em>
<em>MARK</em><em> </em><em>ME</em><em> </em><em>AS</em><em> </em><em>A</em><em> </em><em>BRAINLIEST</em>
Tough.. Just write a little stick figure guy saying I dunno. :) Hope I helped!
Each unit sells: $80
Each unit costs to make: $32
Fixed costs: 72,000
Goal: 2,000 units sold
If they meet their goal, let's see how that would go:
(2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
160,000 - 64,000 - 72,000 = 24,000
24,000 is the profit they would make for hitting their goal.
Question 1:
What is the break-even point? The break-even means they make no money, but they also lose no money. So that final number (24,000) would be 0 instead. How many units would they have to make to hit zero?
(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 = 0.
80x - 32x = 72,000
48x = 72,000
x = 1500 units
We can verify by using our first formula we've already determined, using this new value for units.
(1,500* 80) - (1,500 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
120,000 - 48,000 - 72,000 = 0? True!
Question 2: If they increase their expenses by 16,000, what is their new break even point?
(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 - 16000 = 0.
80x - 32x - 88000 = 0
48x = 88000
x = 1833
Question 3: 10% reduction in selling price and 10% increase in sales. (Assuming based off the original formula the problem provided.)
Original: (2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
10% Reduction in price: 8
80-8 = 72
10% increase in sales: 200
2000 + 200 = 2200
Plugin to our formula:
(2200 * 72) - (2200 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
158400 - 70400 - 72,000 = 16,000
Since this number is positive, this is income. (D)
