Answer:
$8.31 million and No.
Explanation:
In this question, we have to find out the present value which is shown below:
= $1 + first year value ÷ ( 1 + discount rate) + second year value ÷ ( 1 + discount rate) ^ number of years + third year value ÷ ( 1 + discount rate) ^ number of years
= $1 + $2 million ÷ (1 + 10%) + ($3 million ÷ 1.10)^2 + ($4 million ÷ 1.10)^3
= $1 million + $1.82 million + $2.48 million + $3.01 million
= $8.31 million
No the package would not worth $10 million as its present value is $8.31 million
Answer:
Variable overhead rate variance = $ 875 favorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $ 4,185 favorable
Variable overhead cost variance = $5,060 Favorable
Explanation:
Standard hours = 1 hr x 2600 units = 2600 hours
Standard rate = $3.10
Actual hours = 1,250 hours
Actual rate = $2.40
Variable overhead rate variance = ( Standard Rate - Actual Rate ) x Actual Hrs
= ( $ 3.10 - $2.40 ) x 1250 Hrs
= $0.7 x 1250
=$ 875 favorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = (Standard hours - Actual hours) x Standard Rate
= (2600 - 1250 ) x $ 3.10
= $ 4,185 favorable
Variable overhead spending variance = Variable overhead rate variance + Variable overhead efficiency variance
= $875 + $4,185
= $ 5,060 favorable
Variable overhead cost variance = Standard cost - Actual Cost
= (2600 X 3.10) - (1250 X 2.40) = 8,060 - 3000
= $5,060 Favorable
Answer:
1,200 shares held at a cost basis of $37.50
Explanation:
Since there are 1,000 shares are purchased
and the stock dividend is 20%
So the number of shares after the dividend is
= 1,000 × (1 + dividend percentage)
= 1,000 × (1 + 0.20)
= 1,000 × 1.20
= 1.200
And, the price per share is
= $44 + $1
= $45
So, the cost basis would be
= $45 ÷ 1.20
= $37.50
hence, the tax status of the investment is 1,200 shares held for cost at $37.50 basis
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