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Helen [10]
3 years ago
11

The Baldwin Company currently has the following balances on their balance sheet: Total Assets $255,213 Total Liabilities $151,32

8 Retained Earnings $47,588 Suppose next year the Baldwin Company generates $44,200 in net profit, pays $12,000 in dividends, total assets increase by $55,000, and total liabilities remain unchanged. What will ending Baldwins balance in Common Stock be next year? Select: 1 $79,097 $509,129 $381,753 $143,497
Business
1 answer:
enyata [817]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$79,097

Explanation:

The accounting equation shows the relationship between the elements of a balance sheet which are assets liabilities and equity. This may be expressed mathematically as

Assets = Liabilities + Equity

While assets include fixed assets, cash, inventories, account receivables etc, liabilities include accounts payable, loans payable, accrued expenses etc.

Equity which represents the amount owed to the owners of the business includes retained earnings (which is the accumulation of the net income/loss over the years less dividends paid) and common shares.

Hence in current year,

Total equity = $255,213 - $151,328

= $103,885

If retained earnings is $47,588 then common stock

= $103,885  - $47,588

= $56,297

Change to equity next year

= $55,000

Change to retained earnings

= $44,200 - $12,000

= $32,200

Hence change in common stock

= $55,000 - $32,200

= $22,800

Common stock balance

= $56,297  + $22,800

= $79,097

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Hokey Min's Kleen Karpet cleaned 75 rugs in October, consuming the following resources: Labor: Solvent Machine Rental: 520 hours
mezya [45]

Answer:

0.0075 rugs per dollar

Explanation:

(b)

Total labor cost:

= 520 hours × $15 per hour

= $7,800

Total solvent cost:

= 100 gallons × $5 per gallon

= $500

Total machine rental cost:

= 22 days × $75 per day

= $1,650

Multi-factor productivity:

= Number of rugs ÷ (Total labor cost + Total solvent cost + Total machine rental cost)

= 75 ÷ ($7,800 + $500 + $1,650)

= 75 ÷ $9,950

= 0.0075 rugs per dollar

8 0
3 years ago
Babcock Company purchased a piece of machinery for $36,000 on January 1, 2019, and has been depreciating the machine using the s
pogonyaev

Answer:

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

Explanation:

Year  Remaining Life of machine  Depreciation fraction

1                               5                                           5/15

2                              4                                           4/15

3                              3                                           3/15

4                              2                                           2/15

5                          <u>    1     </u>                                       1/15

Total                       15  

Now here, the depreciation formula is as under:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) * Fraction value

<u>Year 2019:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 5/15  = $12,000

<u>Year 2020:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 4/15  = $9,600

<u>Year 2021:</u>

Now in this year the there is change in estimate and a switch in the use of the depreciation method, which is now straight line method. The change in estimate only includes the useful life of the asset which is 6 years from the date of purchase.

So for straight-line depreciation:

Depreciation Expense = (Cost - Salvage Value)  / Useful Life

By simply putting values, we have:

Depreciation Expense = $36,000 / 6 years = $6,000 per year

So this means, according to change in accounting policy, the excess depreciation charged must be eliminated from the previous years. The depreciation charge for the previous 2 years must be $12,000 and the excess depreciation charge is calculated as under:

Carrying value of the asset = $21,600 - $12,000  = $9,600

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

The double entry according to the US GAAP, for the excess depreciation charge in the previous years would be the waiving off of retained earnings with the excess depreciation amount calculated above.

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u></u>

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

The depreciation expense for the year 2021, would be recorded as under:

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the price of gasoline in July 2004 averaged $1.35 a gallon and 15 million gallons a day were sold. In October 2004, the
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

0.15

Inelastic

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price of the good.

Price elasticity of demand = midpoint change in quantity demanded / midpoint change in price  

Midpoint change in quantity demanded = change in quantity demanded / average of both demands

change in quantity demanded = 14 million  - 15 million =  -1 million  

average of both demands = (14 million + 15 million  ) / 2 = 14.50 million

Midpoint change in quantity demanded =  -1 million  / 14.50 million = -0.069

midpoint change in price = change in price / average of both price

change in price = $2.15 - $1.35 = $0.80

average of both prices = ( $2.15 + $1.35 ) / 2 = $1.75

midpoint change in price = $0.80 /  $1.75 = 0.457

-0.069 / 0.457 = 0.15 demand is inelastic  

If the absolute value of price elasticity is greater than one, it means demand is elastic. Elastic demand means that quantity demanded is sensitive to price changes.  

Demand is inelastic if a small change in price has little or no effect on quantity demanded. The absolute value of elasticity would be less than one

Demand is unit elastic if a small change in price has an equal and proportionate effect on quantity demanded.  

Infinitely elastic demand is perfectly elastic demand. Demand falls to zero when price increases  

Perfectly inelastic demand is demand where there is no change in the quantity demanded regardless of changes in price.

 

6 0
3 years ago
St. Vincent's, Inc., currently uses traditional costing procedures, applying $800,000 of overhead to products Beta and Zeta on t
tatyana61 [14]

The overhead cost that should be allocated to Zeta via activity-based costing is $356,000.

The following formula for determining the overhead cost allocated to Zeta:

= Zeta pool no 1 ÷ total pool no 1 × pool cost + zeta pool no 2 ÷ total pool no 2 × pool cost + zeta pool no 3 ÷ total pool no 3 × pool cost

= 2,800 ÷ 4,000 × $160,000 + 55 ÷ 100 × $280,000 + 750 ÷ 3,000 x $360,000

= $356,000

Therefore we can conclude that the overhead cost that should be allocated to Zeta via activity-based costing is $356,000.

Learn more about the overhead here: brainly.com/question/11950737

6 0
2 years ago
Joan Demers launched a professional services firm on March 1. The firm will prepare financial statements at each month-end. In M
adell [148]

Answer:

the net operating income is $19,000

Explanation:

The computation of the net operating income is shown below:

As we know that

Net Operating Income = Revenue - Costs

= $10,000 + $20,000 - $5,000 -$6,000

= $19,000

Hence, the net operating income is $19,000

we simply deduct the cost from the revenue so that the net operating income could come

4 0
3 years ago
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