Answer:
y = -1
Step-by-step explanation:
(y+1)/(x-8) = (-1+1)/(-2-8)
(y+1)/(x-8) = 0
y+1 =0
y= -1
Answer:
Binomial
There is a 34.87% probability that you will encounter neither of the defective copies among the 10 you examine.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each copy of the document, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. This means that we can solve this problem using the binomial probability distribution.
Binomial probability distribution:
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which 
is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
In this problem
Of the 20 copies, 2 are defective, so 
.
What is the probability that you will encounter neither of the defective copies among the 10 you examine?
This is P(X = 0) when 
.
There is a 34.87% probability that you will encounter neither of the defective copies among the 10 you examine.
Answer:
13 inches
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the greatest number of inches possible in the length of each piece, we need to find the greatest common divisor of 39, 52 and 65.
So, the divisors of 39 are: 1, 3 and 13
The divisors of 52 are: 1, 2, 4, 13 and 26
The divisors of 65 are: 1, 5 and 13
Therefore, the common divisors are 1 and 13. Finally the greatest common divisor is 13. It means that the greatest number of inches possible in the length of each piece is 13 inches.
Answer:
87
Step-by-step explanation:
A negative times a negative always equals a positive, and 10 times anything is just moving the decimal point to the right once, so 8.7 becomes 87.0
The first digit can be any one of the numbers 2-9 That a total of 8 numbers.
The next 6 digits can be any permutation of 6 from the numbers 0 to 9.
(10 numbers)
nPr = n! / r!
so here we have 10P6 = 10! / 6! = 10*9*8*7 = 5040
So final answer is 8 * 5040 = 40,320
