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3 years ago

Factorise fully the following expression (am-an+bm-bn)

Mathematics

2 answers:

Luda [366]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

$\small \sf \: ( m - n ) ( a + b )$

Step-by-step explanation:

( am - an + bm - bn)

Do the grouping

= ( am - an ) + ( bm - bn )

Factor out a in the first and b in the second group

= a ( m - n ) + b ( m - n )

factor out common term m - n by using distributive property

= ( m - n ) ( a + b )

belka [17]3 years ago

3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

am-an+bm-bn

m(a+b)-n(a+b)

(m-n)(a-b)

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Answer:

(a) The value of k is $\frac{1}{15}$ .

(b) The probability that at most three forms are required is 0.40.

(d) $P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50} ;\ y=1, 2, ...5$ is not the pmf of y.

Step-by-step explanation:

The random variable Y is defined as the number of forms required of the next applicant.

The probability mass function is defined as:

$P(y) = \left \{ {{ky};\ for \ y=1,2,...5 \atop {0};\ otherwise} \right$

(a)

The sum of all probabilities of an event is 1.

Use this law to compute the value of k.

$\sum P(y) = 1\\k+2k+3k+4k+5k=1\\15k=1\\k=\frac{1}{15}$

Thus, the value of k is $\frac{1}{15}$ .

(b)

Compute the value of P (Y ≤ 3) as follows:

$P(Y\leq 3)=P(Y=1)+P(Y=2)+P(Y=3)\\=\frac{1}{15}+\frac{2}{15}+ \frac{3}{15}\\=\frac{1+2+3}{15}\\ =\frac{6}{15} \\=0.40$

Thus, the probability that at most three forms are required is 0.40.

(c)

Compute the value of P (2 ≤ Y ≤ 4) as follows:

$P(2\leq Y\leq 4)=P(Y=2)+P(Y=3)+P(Y=4)\\=\frac{2}{15}+\frac{3}{15}+\frac{4}{15}\\ =\frac{2+3+4}{15}\\ =\frac{9}{15} \\=0.60$

Thus, the probability that between two and four forms (inclusive) are required is 0.60.

(d)

Now, for $P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50} ;\ y=1, 2, ...5$ to be the pmf of Y it has to satisfy the conditions:

$P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50}>0;\ for\ all\ values\ of\ y \\$
$\sum P(y)=1$

Check condition 1:

$y=1:\ P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50}=\frac{1}{50}=0.02>0\\y=2:\ P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50}=\frac{4}{50}=0.08>0 \\y=3:\ P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50}=\frac{9}{50}=0.18>0\\y=4:\ P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50}=\frac{16}{50}=0.32>0 \\y=5:\ P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50}=\frac{25}{50}=0.50>0$

Condition 1 is fulfilled.

Check condition 2:

$\sum P(y)=0.02+0.08+0.18+0.32+0.50=1.1>1$

Condition 2 is not satisfied.

Thus, $P(y)=\frac{y^{2}}{50} ;\ y=1, 2, ...5$ is not the pmf of y.

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3 years ago

Factorise fully the following expression (am-an+bm-bn)​

Factorise fully the following expression (am-an+bm-bn)