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otez555 [7]
3 years ago
9

A jar of 150 jelly beans contains 22 red jelly beans, 38 yellow, 20 green, 28 purple, 26 blue, and the rest are orange. Let B =

the event of getting a blue jelly bean Let G = the event of getting a green jelly bean. Let O = the event of getting an orange jelly bean. Let P = the event of getting a purple jelly bean. Let R = the event of getting a red jelly bean. Let Y = the event of getting a yellow jelly bean. Find P(R)
Mathematics
1 answer:
Oduvanchick [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: \frac{11}{75}

Step-by-step explanation:

R is the event of getting a red jelly bean. 22 out of the 150 jelly beans are red. That means it is a \frac{22}{150} chance of getting a red jelly bean.

Simplified that is \frac{11}{75}

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Answer:

Probability that one type of candy will be chosen more than once in 10 trials = 0.2639

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial experiment because

- A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

- It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (10 trials, with the outcome of each trial being that we get the required candy or not)

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Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 10 trials

x = Number of successes required = number of times we want to pick a particular brand of candy = more than once, that is > 1

p = probability of success = probability of picking a particular brand of candy from a bulk with 10 different types of candies = (1/10) = 0.10

q = probability of failure = Probability of not picking our wanted candy = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.90

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1)

P(X ≤ 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = ¹⁰C₀ (0.10)⁰ (0.90)¹⁰⁻⁰ = 0.3486784401

P(X = 1) = ¹⁰C₁ (0.10)¹ (0.90)¹⁰⁻¹ = 0.387420489

P(X ≤ 1) = 0.3486784401 + 0.387420489 = 0.7360989291

P(X > 1) = 1 - 0.7360989291 = 0.2639010709 = 0.2639

Hope this Helps!!!

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