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Alexxandr [17]
3 years ago
12

Darrell and Jim are planning to run in their office-sponsored marathon and plan on joining a gym to train.Darrell finds that gym

-A has a $40 joining fee and then costs $15 per month after that.Jim finds that gym-B is free to join and costs $20 per month after. At what number of months of training would gym-A to be a cheaper option than gym-B
Business
1 answer:
patriot [66]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

From number of month to be 9, training would be cheaper in gym A than in gym B.

Explanation:

To calculate the number of months when option containing gym A becomes cheaper than option of gym B, we first need to form cost equations for both and equate them.

Let x be the number of months.

The cost of gym A is = 40 + 15x

The cost of gym B = 20x

40 + 15x = 20x

40 = 20x - 15x

40 = 5x

x = 40/5

x = 8

So, the cost for both options will be equal when the number of months is 8. From number of month to be 9, training would be cheaper in gym A than in gym B.

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Consider a risky portfolio. The end-of-year cash flow derived from the portfolio will be either $70,000 or $200,000 with equal p
astra-53 [7]

Answer:

$118,421

Explanation:

first we must calculate the expected value of the risky portfolio = ($70,000 x 0.5) + ($200,000 x 0.5) = $135,000

since your risk premium is 8% and the risk free rate is 6%m then you should discount the expected value by 8% + 6% = 14% to determine its current market price

= $135,000 / (1 + 14%) = $118,421

7 0
4 years ago
Analysts estimate that a bond has a 40 percent probability of being priced at $950 and a 60 percent probability of being priced
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

Explanation:

40% probability that bond will be priced at $950

60% probability that bond will be priced at $1050

Expected value of the bond in one year:

(Probability*Price of bond) + (Probability * Callable price bond)= (0.4*$950)+(0.60*$1010)=$986

So, expected value is $986

8 0
4 years ago
What is the most direct cause of customer loyalty? High food safety standards Delicious food Friendly staff Good records
iogann1982 [59]

the answer is friendly staff

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the United States is currently producing 200 tons of hamburgers and 60 tons of tacos and Mexico is currently producing 4
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

United States is producing 200 tons of hamburgers and 60 tons of tacos.

United States' opportunity cost for producing 1 ton of hamburgers

= \frac{60}{200}

= 0.3

United States' opportunity cost for producing 60 tons of tacos.

= \frac{200}{60}

= 3.33

So we see that US has a lower opportunity cost in producing hamburgers, so it has a comparative advantage in producing hamburgers.

Mexico is producing 40 tons of hamburgers and 50 tons of tacos.

Mexico's opportunity cost of producing a ton of hamburgers

= \frac{50}{40}

= 1.25

Mexico's opportunity cost of producing a ton of tacos

= \frac{40}{50}

= 0.8

So we see that Mexico has a lower opportunity cost in producing tacos, so it has a comparative advantage in making tacos.

Since US specializes in making hamburgers, it will produce 200 tons of hamburgers and 0 tons of tacos.

Mexico specializes in making tacos, it will produce 50 tons of tacos and 0 tons of hamburgers.

5 0
3 years ago
Grove Inc. is a publicly traded chemical company that reported the following financial statements for the most recent year. $1,0
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

FCFF = $335.50

Explanation:

Formula of Free Cash Flow to the firm ( FCFF) :

FCFF= Net Income+ Interest(1- tax rate)+ Depreciation+ working capital changes- capital investment

Now let us note some critical points and assumptions which are necessary to solve the question.

As the question says that the company will maintain its existing after tax return on capital invested next year, hence that means that the net income for the next year remains the same, which is $140.

It is also that the company expects it's Operating Income(EBIT) to increase by 6% every year, hence it's operating income(EBIT) for the next year will be $250*(1.06)= $265

Tax rate remains the same, that is, (60/200*100)= 30%

As there is no details with respect to working capital changes and any capital investment made, hence it is assumed to zero changes and no additional investment.

It is assumed that the depreciation method being followed is straight line method, hence depreciation value next year would be the same, that is, 150

Now let's finalise our income statement:

EBIT = $265 given in the question

Interest = ( $65) backward calculation

Taxable Income = $200

Taxes (30%) = ($60)

Net income = $140 given in question.

Hence our FCFF will be :

$ 140 + $65*(1-0.30) + $150 = $335.50

8 0
3 years ago
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