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spayn [35]
3 years ago
8

PLSSS HELPPPP I WILLL GIVE YOU BRAINLIEST!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Tju [1.3M]3 years ago
5 0
The top person is right
Andreas93 [3]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(6,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

(6,1)

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Korey runs every 3rd day and swims every 4th day. If he runs and swims today, how many days will it be before Korey runs and swi
hichkok12 [17]

Answer: 12 days

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question, we have to list the multiples of 3 and 4. This will be:

3 = 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30

4 = 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40.

The lowest common multiple is 12.

It will take 12 days before Korey runs and swims again on the same day.

5 0
3 years ago
What compass heading represents 20° north of east?​
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

45°

Step-by-step explanation:

Northeast (NE), 45°, halfway between north and east, is the opposite of southwest. Southeast (SE), 135°, halfway between south and east, is the opposite of northwest. Southwest (SW), 225°, halfway between south and west, is the opposite of northeast.

6 0
1 year ago
How long does Ashley work on her sculpture?
Alex73 [517]
5 hours and 40 minutes. 3+2= 5 which make it 5 hours and then 2/3= 4/6= 40/60 which makes it 40 minutes
4 0
3 years ago
Records indicate that for parts coming out a hydraulic repair shop at an airplane rework facility, 30\% will have a shaft defect
mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

P(A|B) = P(A∩B)/P(B) = 100%

Which means that there is 100% probability that the item has at least one type of defect given that the item has only a shaft defect.

Step-by-step explanation:

Conditional probability P(A|B) can be expressed as;

P(A|B) = P(A∩B)/P(B) .....1

Given;

30% will have a shaft defect,

15% will have a bushing defect,

and 65% will be defect-free

Total probability = 100% = P(shaft or/and bushing defect) + P(defect free)

P(shaft or/and bushing defect) = 100% - P(defect free)

= 100% - 65% = 35%

And

P(shaft or/and bushing defect) = P(shaft def only) + P(bushing def only) + P(shaft and bushing defect)

P(shaft or/and bushing defect) = P(shaft defect) + P(bushing defect) - P(shaft and bushing defect)

Substituting the values we have;

35% = 30% + 15% - P(shaft and bushing defect)

P(shaft and bushing defect) = 45% - 35% = 10%

Let A="The item has at least one type of defect"; and B="The item has only a shaft defect".

P(A) = P(shaft or/and bushing defect) = 35%

P(B) = P(shaft only defect) = 30% - 10% = 20%

P(A∩B) = 20%

Substituting into equation 1

P(A|B) = P(A∩B)/P(B) = 20%/20%

P(A|B) = 1/1 = 100%

Which means that there is 100% probability that the item has at least one type of defect given that the item has only a shaft defect.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the area of a circle whose diameter is 32 inches? Use π=3.14 in your calculations. Show your work.
Rina8888 [55]
R = 32 / 2 = 16
Pie = 3.14
Area of circle = pie x r^2
= 3.14 x 16^2 = 803.84
5 0
3 years ago
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