Do you know how to simplify, let's say for example, x⁵/x² ?
When the bases are the same, you can just subtract the exponent in
the denominator from the exponent in the numerator. So x⁵/x² = x³ .
Now look at x⁷/x⁷ . From that same handy tip, x⁷/x⁷ = x⁰ .
BUT ... any fraction with the same number on top and bottom
is equal to ' 1 '. So x⁰ = 1 , no matter what 'x' happens to be.
Does that do anything for you ?
After 4 hours there will be 64 000
3 - 32k
2-16
1-8
do you need exactly 50 000?
Answer:
Question 1:
cos a = 0.2195
tan a = 4.445
Question 2:
sin a = 0.8
tan a = 1.333
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3 /><h3>Question 1:</h3>
Given that;
sin a = 40/41
a = sin ⁻¹ (40/41)
a = 77.32°
Now we have to find the value of cos a and tan a:
a = 77.32°
cos 77.32° = 0.2195
tan 77.32° = 4.445
<h3>Question 2:</h3>
Given that;
cos a = 0.6
a = cos ⁻¹ (0.6)
a = 53.13°
Now we have to find the value of cos a and tan a:
a = 53.13°
sin 53.13° = 0.8
tan 53.13° = 1.333
You first need to establish the benefits function B. For each firm it is equal to the amount produced (q1 for firm 1 and q2 for firm 2) multiplied by the price P, minus cost C. It is
B1 = P.q1 - C1 = (69 - q1 - q2)q1 - C1
B2= P.q2 - C2 = (69 - q1 - q2)q2 - C2
As firma Will maximize benefits we need the derivative in q1 and q2 for firms 1 and 2 respectively. This will give us
69 - 2q1 - q2 = 0
69 - q1 - 2q2 = 0
Note that the derivative of cost is null as marginal cost is null.
Thus,
q2= 69 - 2q1
Replacing on the second equation:
69- q1 - 138 + 4q1 = 0
-69 + 3q1= 0
q1= 69/3=23
Replacing in the q2 equation:
q2=69- 46= 23
To find the money they make replace in benefits function. First we find piece P=69-23-23=23. Thus:
B1=23*23-C1
B2=23*23-C2
As we don't have a value for C1 and C2 we can't compute a number for benefits. If you have these values you will have the benefits.
308 because 19x11= 209 and if he’s adding 3 inches to each side it becomes 22x14 which equals 308
