1. Because only 25% of the foreign investment went from MDCs to LDCs.
2. Money is not invested evenly among LDCs (most money went to China).
Answer:
$37,600 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance can be computed as;
= (Actual hours worked × Actual variable overhead rate) - ( Actual hours worked - Standard variable overhead rate)
= ( 18,800 hours × $77,700/12,000) - (18,800 hours × $4.5)
= [(18,800 × $6.5) - (18,800 × $4.5)]
= $122,200 - $84,600
= $37,600 favorable
Answer:
4.33.
Explanation:
Inventory turnover is a ratio that tells us the number of times a company sells and replaces its inventory. It is calculated by taking Cost of Goods Sold for a period and dividing it by Average Inventory [(Opening + Ending) / 2].
⇒ 300,000 / [(64,400 + 74,200) / 2] = 300,000 / 69,300 = 4.33.
It means that Marian Company sold its inventory 4.33 times during the Year.
A. $2164.89
Basically just subtract, 3,678.89-1514 = 2,164.89
Answer:
$240,885.11
Explanation:
The formula to be used is = annual payment x annuity factor
Annuity factor = {[(1+r) ^N ] - 1} / r
R = interest rate = 8.2 percent
N = number of years = 25
[(1.082^25) - 1 ] / 0.082 = 75.276598
75.276598 x $3,200 = $240,885.11
I hope my answer helps you