Answer:
34 m/s
Explanation:
Potential energy at top = kinetic energy at bottom + work done by friction
PE = KE + W
mgh = ½ mv² + Fd
mg (d sin θ) = ½ mv² + Fd
Solving for v:
½ mv² = mg (d sin θ) − Fd
mv² = 2mg (d sin θ) − 2Fd
v² = 2g (d sin θ) − 2Fd/m
v = √(2g (d sin θ) − 2Fd/m)
Given g = 9.8 m/s², d = 150 m, θ = 28°, F = 50 N, and m = 65 kg:
v = √(2 (9.8 m/s²) (150 m sin 28°) − 2 (50 N) (150 m) / (65 kg))
v = 33.9 m/s
Rounded to two significant figures, her velocity at the bottom of the hill is 34 m/s.
Answer:
0.8726
Explanation:
We are to convert 1.85 x to
First, let us convert the numerator from ft3 to m3
1 ft3 = 0.0283 m3
Hence,
1.85 x ft3 = 1.85 x x 0.0283 m3
= 52.355 m3
Now, let us convert the denominator from minutes to seconds
1 min = 60 sec
Therefore;
1.85 x = 52.355/60
= 0.8726
Answer:
B
Explanation:
OOf we are doing this stuff atm
So if its faster at the front and slow at the back you can tell that its not slowing down because less of a force is there however at the front there is more of a force. Friction is low which means that its not makimg much contact so no sudden change of forces thats also why its B
Explanation:
By using v=( f )x( lambda )
v= 45 s^-1 x 3 m
Therefore v = 135 ms^-1