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2 years ago

HELP!

Mathematics

1 answer:

Alekssandra [29.7K]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Quadrant with radius 16 inches and angle 90° .

Since there are two quadrants:

So, Perimeter of quadrants is given by

Perimeter of this figure is given by

Hence, Second Option is correct.

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Use cylindrical shells to find the volume v of the solid. a right circular cone with height 10h and base radius 9r

Genrish500 [490]

Volume of cone 1/3πr2h

7 0

3 years ago

8=Z/16<br><br><br> Hint: equation and rational coefficient

sergiy2304 [10]

Answer:

z=128

Step-by-step explanation:

z/16=8

z=8*16

z=128

8 0

3 years ago

A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr

ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so $\pi = 0.30$

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so $n = 10$

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211$

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is $P(X > 1)$

We have that:

$P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1$

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)$

We also have that:

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493$

Finally

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507$

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0

3 years ago

I have no idea how to do this. I found the answer but now I have to explain it.

Sophie [7]

Answer:

You have 3 + 2 + 2 which is the same as 7 on the other side.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 + 2 + 2 is 7

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

To raise funds, a school sells raffle tickets to parents and students. The parent tickets cost $6 each and the student tickets c

masya89 [10]

Answer: 312 students purchased a ticket

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent the number of raffle tickets sold to parents.

Let y represent the number of raffle tickets sold to students.

The school sold 371 tickets. This means that

x + y = 371

x = 371 - y

The parent tickets cost $6 each and the student tickets cost $1.50 each and the school raised a total of $822. This means that

6x + 1.5y = 822 - - - - - - - -1

Substituting x = 371 - y into equation 1, it becomes

6(371 - y) + 1.5y = 822

2226 - 6y + 1.5y = 822

- 6y + 1.5y = 822 - 2226

- 4.5y = - 1404

y = -1404/-4.5

y = 312

x = 371 - y

x = 371 - 312

x = 59

7 0

2 years ago