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padilas [110]
2 years ago
7

This figure was broken into a triangle and a rectangle as shown.

Mathematics
2 answers:
ehidna [41]2 years ago
6 0

Answer: b=8in

Step-by-step explanation:

The base of the triangle is 8in because, as the shape has been split into 2 shapes, the base of the triangle is the same as the length of the rectangle.

Hope this helps :)

Harlamova29_29 [7]2 years ago
3 0
B=8 because I had this question and I got it correct
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Convert 65L into quarts
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68.68

Step-by-step explanation:

for an approximate result, multiply the volume value by 1.057

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What is the constant of proportionality in the equation y = 2x?
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Answer: 2 because of the constant proportionality

Step-by-step explanation: hope this helps!

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3 years ago
Suppose I ask you to pick any four cards at random from a deck of 52, without replacement, and bet you one dollar that at least
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

a) No, because you have only 33.8% of chances of winning the bet.

b) No, because you have only 44.7% of chances of winning the bet.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Of the total amount of cards (n=52 cards) there are 12 face cards (3 face cards: Jack, Queen, or King for everyone of the 4 suits: clubs, diamonds, hearts and spades).

The probabiility of losing this bet is the sum of:

- The probability of having a face card in the first turn

- The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.

- The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

- The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

<u><em>1) The probability of having a face card in the first turn</em></u>

In this case, the chances are 12 in 52:

P_1=P(face\, card)=12/52=0.231

<u><em>2) The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get a non-face card (there are 40 in the dech of 52), and then, with the rest of the cards (there are 51 left now), getting a face card:

P_2=P(non\,face\,card)*P(face\,card)=(40/52)*(12/51)=0.769*0.235=0.181

<u><em>3) The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the first and second turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get two consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_3=(40/52)*(39/51)*(12/50)\\\\P_3=0.769*0.765*0.240=0.141

<u><em>4) The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get three consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_4=(40/52)*(39/51)*(38/50)*(12/49)\\\\P_4=0.769*0.765*0.76*0.245=0.109

With these four probabilities we can calculate the probability of losing this bet:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3+P_4=0.231+0.181+0.141+0.109=0.662

The probability of losing is 66.2%, which is the same as saying you have (1-0.662)=0.338 or 33.8% of winning chances. Losing is more probable than winning, so you should not take the bet.

b) If the bet involves 3 cards, the only difference with a) is that there is no probability of getting the face card in the fourth turn.

We can calculate the probability of losing as the sum of the first probabilities already calculated:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3=0.231+0.181+0.141=0.553

There is 55.3% of losing (or 44.7% of winning), so it is still not convenient to bet.

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3 years ago
A machine packs 180 boxes of cereal in a half-hour. It takes 55 minutes to pack 330 boxes. True or False?
frozen [14]
I think that the answer is true
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2 years ago
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