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Vikki [24]
3 years ago
14

. The following data are available for a company's manufacturing activities:Beginning goods in process inventory 5,000 units, 1/

4 of the labor added this periodUnits started and completed 15,000Ending goods in process inventory 6,000 units, 1/2 of the labor added this periodAssume the company uses the weighted-average inventory method. If materials are added when the production process begins and direct labor is applied uniformly throughout the process, what are the equivalent units for direct materials and for direct labor, respectively?A. 21,000; 23,000B. 26,000; 19,250C. 21,000; 19,250D. 26,000; 23,000E. 19,250;19,250
Business
1 answer:
Lynna [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. 26,000; 23,000

Explanation:

Equivalent Units (Weighted Average Method) =  Beginning Goods In process + Units Completed + Ending Goods x % of completion

Direct Materials:  5,000 + 15,000 + 6,000 x 100% = 26,000

Direct Labor: 5,000 + 15,000 + 6,000 x 50% = 23,000

Remember: In the weighted average cost system the opening inventory units count as a full equivalent unit of production.

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A store and a bank would both charge fees for _____.
horsena [70]
"Bouncing a check
When a check is deposited in a bank, or when it is written out to a store teller to ultimately deposit in the store bank, the funds are tracing back from an origin bank account. When the check bounces a fee is then charges by both the bank out of which the check is written (for non-sufficient funds) and by the payee. If the payee is a store they will often charge fees that are charged back to them by their bank of deposit."
7 0
4 years ago
g The Nite Lite Factory produces two products - small lamps and desk lamps. It has two separate departments - finishing and prod
almond37 [142]

Answer:

$7.20

Explanation:

Given the following :

FINISHING department :

overhead budget = $550,000

direct labor HOURS = 500,000

PRODUCTION department :

overhead budget = $400,000

direct labor hours = 80,000

Predetermined allocation rate for finishing department :

Overhead / allocation base = ($550,000 / 500,000) = $1.10 per direct labor hour

Predetermined allocation rate for production department :

Overhead / allocation base = ($400,000 / 80,000) = $5 per direct labor hour

If the budget estimates that a desk lamp will require 2 hours of finishing and 1 hour of production:

Finishing department :

(2 × Predetermined allocation rate for finishing department)

= (2 × $1.10) = $2.20

Production :

(1 × Predetermined allocation rate for production department)

= (1 × $5). = $5

Total = ($2.20 + $5) = $7.20

3 0
4 years ago
QUESTION 9 of 10: Which of the following is not part of the process of passion transference?
serg [7]

Answer:

The fan does not see the relevance of the brand advertisement.

Explanation:

Trust :)

8 0
3 years ago
Titan Mining Corporation has 6.3 million shares of common stock outstanding, 220,000 shares of 3.6 percent preferred stock outst
Shkiper50 [21]

The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

a.

We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:

Market value of debt = MVD = 105,000*($1,000)*(1.07) = $25,750,000

Market value of preferred cost = MVP = 220,000*($83) = $18,260,000

Market value of equity = MVE = 6,300,000*($73) = $459,900,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $25,750,000 + 18,260,000+ 459,900,000

V = $503,910,000

b.

So, the market value weights of the company's financing are:

D/V = $25,750,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0511

P/V = $18,260,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0362

E/V = $459,900,000/$503,910,000 = 0.9127

For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate.

First, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

RE = .031 + 1.15(.071)

RE = 0.1030, or 10.03%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:

P0 = $1,070 = $26.50(PVIFAR%,34) + $1,000(PVIFR%,34)

R = 2.228%

YTM = 2.228% × 2

YTM = 4.46%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

RD = (1 - .22)(.0446)

RD = .0348, or 3.48%

The cost of preferred stock is:

RP = $3.60/$73

RP = .0493, or 4.93%

Now we can calculate the WACC as:

WACC = 0.0511(.0348) + 0.0362(.0493) + 0.9127(.1003)

WACC =0.0933, or 9.33%

Hence, The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

Learn more about equity valuation:

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7 0
2 years ago
If you have a long position in a foreign currency, you can hedge with:_____.
arlik [135]

In forex trading When someone is holding a long position in a foreign currency, then the person can hedge with a short position in a currency forward contract.

What do we mean by long position in a foreign currency?

Long can be explained as when someone buy with the expectation that the purchase will rise in term of value in the future.

At a long on a currency, one is try to bet the base currency, that it will strengthen compared with the quote currency.

Learn more about foreign currency here;

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2 years ago
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