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vova2212 [387]
3 years ago
13

Pure expectations theory The pure expectations theory, or the expectations hypothesis, asserts that long-term interest rates can

be used to estimate future short-term interest rates. Based on the pure expectations theory, is the following statement true or false? The pure expectations theory assumes that a one-year bond purchased today will have the same return as a one-year bond purchased five years from now. False True The yield on a one-year Treasury security is 5.8400%, and the two-year Treasury security has a 7.0080% yield. Assuming that the pure expectations theory is correct, what is the market’s estimate of the one-year Treasury rate one year from now? (Note: Do not round your intermediate calculations.) 10.3999% 6.9606% 8.1889% 9.3353% Recall that on a one-year Treasury security the yield is 5.8400% and 7.0080% on a two-year Treasury security. Suppose the one-year security does not have a maturity risk premium, but the two-year security does and it is 0.2%. What is the market’s estimate of the one-year Treasury rate one year from now? (Note: Do not round your intermediate calculations.) 8.8748% 6.6172% 7.7849% 9.8868% Suppose the yield on a two-year Treasury security is 5.83%, and the yield on a five-year Treasury security is 6.20%. Assuming that the pure expectations theory is correct, what is the market’s estimate of the three-year Treasury rate two years from now? (Note: Do not round your intermediate calculations.) 6.53% 6.45% 5.46% 6.69%
Business
1 answer:
fiasKO [112]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

False

6.9606

9.8868

Explanation:

Forward rates represent the expected future rate. This theory is known as pure expectation theory. The bond purchase today will not have the discount factor affect whereas the bond purchased five years from now will have different return from today. The five year value will need to be discounted in order to find the return on todays date.

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Tasya [4]

The question is incomplete. The following is the complete question.

Sag Manufacturing is planning to sell 400,000 hammers for $6 per unit. The  contribution margin ratio is 20%. If Sweet will break even at this level of sales, what are  the fixed costs?

Answer:

Fixed costs are $480000

Explanation:

The break even sales is the value of total sales or total revenue where it equals total cost and the company makes no profit or no loss. The break even in sales is calculated by dividing the fixed costs by the contribution margin ratio.

Break even in sales = Fixed cost / Contribution margin ratio

Plugging in the available values we can calculate the value of fixed cost. We know that the break even in units is at 400000 units. Thus, its value in sale will be 400000 * 6 = 2400000

2400000 = Fixed cost / 0.2

2400000 * 0.2 = Fixed cost

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6 0
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When the world price of some good is above the domestic price (before trade), then after trade, that nation will likely be:
Rudiy27

Answer:

EXPORT

Explanation:

If the domestic price of a country for  a good is lower than world price before trade, it mean that the country is producing that good efficiently - at a cheaper cost. After trade, the country would export the good, so that the world can produce more of the goods it produces efficiently.

If the world price is below domestic price of a country before trade, after trade, the country would import

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Answer:

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Answer:

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Answer:

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