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Lerok [7]
3 years ago
9

Read the information below then answer the questions which follow:

Biology
1 answer:
Stolb23 [73]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

I believe the experiment was too see if the flowers that would grow from the stem would turn out to be red in color. (Which is the reason they put red ink.)

(hope this helped :P)

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GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)

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What is Osteochondroma? Explain.
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The explanation is given in the explanation section.

Explanation:

Osteochondroma is a condition where the cartilage and the bone faces excess growth at the end of the bone near the growth plate. Most often, it strikes the large bones in the leg, the shoulder blade, or in the pelvis. It usually happens between the ages of 10 and 30. It affects males and females equally. The actual cause of Osteochondroma is still not known. There are two types of Osteochondroma. One type that is inherited and one type that is not inherited.

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3 years ago
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A farmer had an accident and spilled a chemical into his pond. Several days later, he notices many dead frogs around the pond. T
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The frogs were dead and not alive to eat the gnats
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A patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia dur
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The ICD-10-CM that should be reported is the O10.013. This is for pregnancies with pre-existing hypertension complicating the pregnancy in the third trimester. Since the patient is predisposed to pre-eclampsia from previous pregnancy and she is in her third trimester, the code to be used is O10.013.
7 0
2 years ago
A 14-year-old girl sprained her ankle. She rates her pain 5/10. On examination, she has moderate tenderness and swelling with de
pochemuha

Answer:

Grade II

Explanation:

  • When there is either a partial or complete tearing on ligaments that are responsible for supporting the joint of the ankle then it causes an ankle sprain.
  • Based on the exam findings as well as the loss in functionality of the ankle, an ankle sprain can be categorized as grade I, II or III.
  • In the given situation the 14-year-old girl has a grade II ankle sprain which is characterized by an incomplete tear of the ligaments along with moderate pain (as she rates it 5/10), moderate tenderness, loss of range of some functions, and swelling.
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