Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
The answer would be 90 because all you do is add the numbers ! (: pls mark me brainliest
<span>y ≥ 0 is the range of this absolute value expression because the absolute value means x can never go below 0 and range means the y value, which here is equivalent to |x|</span>
Q=M-2P/3
because in order to solve for a variable you have to get alone. Make sense?
