Cause communism is supposed to be the answer i did my research :)
Answer: Both have important elements of civilization in common — among the earliest of written languages, a network of interconnected cities, cooperating and conflicting, formalized government and religion, and so on — but these were very different civilizations, not least for geographical and climatological reasons.
Mesopotamia is a complex example of a river valley civilization — complex because it consists of not one river, but two, the Tigris and the Euphrates, but still I think we can call this a paradigm case of a river valley civilization. We also know that the earliest origins of civilization emerged here, or nearby (Anatolia may be the ultimate point of origin for civilization in this geographical region). The deep history of civilization originating in this region has meant repeated bifurcations in the history of the region, hence cultural and civilizational complexity.
The origins of Mayan civilization are as yet not sufficiently known to determine whether Mayan civilization was completely autonomous in its origins, or if the idea of civilization came to Mesoamerica by way of idea diffusion from the earliest sources of settled neolithic agriculture in the Rio Balsas valley (where corn originated in what is now southern Mexico). Whether or not a civilization emerged autonomously is not always a central question, but in the case of Mayan civilization it should be a central question, because one of the most distinctive things about Mayan civilization is that it is a civilization of a tropical rainforest. Most autonomously emerging civilizations appeared in river valleys, but Mayan civilization appeared and flourished in the jungles of Mesoamerica. There are few other examples of civilizations of the tropical rainforest in the world, the Khmer civilization being another, but in the case of the Khmer we know that it did not originate autonomously, as it comes much later in history when the idea of civilization was already diffused in Indochina.
Explanation: Please give me brainliest
<span>Great Britain, during the early 19th century, enacted strong anti slavery laws and enforced them in their role as the world's superpower. This came about during the early Victorian era as morality became a key issue in government a public revulsion towards the construct of slavery became common. Military intervention was taken against the muslim countries of North Africa who were the main perveyors of the slave trade. Naval intervention in the Atlantic also served to reduce the flow of slaves to the US and and also served to influence public opinion in the US against slavery, eventually becoming a factor in the US civil war of 1861-1865 and the emancipation of existing slaves and the outlawing of the institution of slavery.</span>
