Answer:
d. Fall to $1.47
Explanation:
currently you will need $1,500 to purchase £1,000 and invest in British bonds. After 65 months you will have £1,040, which you should be able to convert into $1,544.40. If you invested in US bonds, you would have $1,530, so this arbitrage will yield $14.40.
But if instead the British pound fell to $1.47, then your profit would only be $28.80, less than if you invested in US bonds. You again would have £1,040 in 6 months, but that would only be equal to $1,528.80.
Answer:
Option a
Explanation:
The efficient-market theory relates to the financial economics concept which claims that asset values represent all the knowledge available. The direct inference is that it is difficult to reliably "outperform the market" on a threat-adjusted basis because stock rates will respond only to fresh knowledge.
Thus, she is building her portfolio by including an index fund, which are the funds that are managed by copying a particular index of some proclaimed funds such as S and P etc.
Answer:
If a company is operating beyond its break-even point, sale of one more unit of products increases the company's profit by the amount of the unit contribution margin.
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
If a company operates beyond the break-even point, any sale of an additional unit increases the company's profit by the amount of the unit contribution margin. This is due to the fact that the fixed cost remains constant and any increase in sale increases contribution and profit by the same amount.
Answer:
b.moral hazard
Explanation:
If a person borrow from bank to buy car but actually he borrow to pay lottery. in this case the person will face Moral Hazards.
Lcm requires to value inventory at the lower of acquisition cost or net realizable value.
Net realizable value = $27 - $1 = $26
Cost = $30
Therefore, it would be valued at $26
