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jeyben [28]
3 years ago
5

When students in a large class were surveyed about how much they would be willing to pay for a coffee mug with their university'

s logo on it, their median willingness to pay was $5. At random, half of the students in this class were then given such a coffee mug and each of the remaining students were given $5 in cash. Students who got mugs were then offered an opportunity to sell them to students who had not gotten one. According to standard economic models, how many mugs would be expected to change hands? How, if at all, would a behavioral economist's prediction differ?
Business
1 answer:
viktelen [127]3 years ago
3 0

Answer and Explanation:

1> Let's solve the standard economic model first based on rational expectation.

Since the medium willingness to pay is $5, we can assume half the people have more willingness to pay than $5 and half the people have less. (Since it's a large class, we can assume this)

So, half of them who got the mug will sell, according to standard theory.

2> Now behavioral economist will disagree. People who got the mug, get an emotional and nostalgic attachment with it, thus they would not like to sell it because they get utility after having something, so by behavioral theory, less than half of pupils who got the mug will sell.

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The law of diminishing marginal returns holds for a situation in which some inputs are variable and some inputs are fixed.

<h3>What is the law of diminishing marginal returns?</h3>

The law of diminishing marginal returns states that after some optimal level of capacity is reached in a production process, an additional factor of production would result in a lessening of output (quantity of production).

In this context, we can infer and logically deduce that the law of diminishing marginal returns would only hold for an economic situation in which some inputs are variable and some inputs are fixed.

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3 0
2 years ago
An investment banker agrees to a firm commitment offering of two million shares of Ace stock. The offer price is set at $55 and
balandron [24]

Answer:

loss of $ 1,400,000.00

Explanation:

Amount of share : two million:

offer price per share: $55

selling price per share: $53.80

Loss per share: $1.20

Total loss= $1.2X2,000,000= ($2,400.000.00)

Earning from spread: 0.5x2,000,000.00 =$1,000.000.00

Net earning: (2,400,000.00)+$1,000,000.00=($ 1,400,000.00)

loss of $ 1,400,000.00

8 0
3 years ago
Following an active duty period of 45 days, when must an employee return to work or apply for reemployment?.
barxatty [35]

If your service lasts 31 to 180 days, you must return to work within 14 days of returning from completing your service requirements.

For deployments lasting more than 180 days, you must apply for re-employment within 90 days of the end of your service.

<h3>What is reemployment in central government?</h3>

Persons reemployed after resignation removal or dismissal provided they have not received any retirement terminal benefits for the pre-empolyed service .

Persons reemployed in posts the expenditure of which is not debitable to the civil estimates of the Union Government .

<h3>What reemployment means?</h3>

The act or an instance of employing or being employed again.

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5 0
1 year ago
A company used straight-line depreciation for an item of equipment that cost $16,950, had a salvage value of $4,200, and had a f
madreJ [45]

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $2,480

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Total Purchase price= $16,950

Useful life= 5 years

Residual value= $4,200

<u>First, we need to calculate the accumulated depreciation at the end of year 3.</u>

Annual depreciation= (Total Purchase price - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (16,950 - 4,200) / 5

Annual depreciation= $2,550

Accumulated depreciation= 2,550*3= $7,650

<u>Now, we can calculate the new depreciation expense:</u>

Depreciable value= 16,950 - 7,650= $9,300

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Salvage value= $1,860

Annual depreciation= (9,300 - 1,860) / 3

Annual depreciation= $2,480

4 0
3 years ago
What does it mean to be "in the black?"
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:  Option d

   

Explanation: Using the word "black" refers to the profit margins of a corporation and existing financial health. A corporation seems to have been in the black when it is financially viable or, more explicitly, if after taking account for all expenditures, the business generates positive income.

The phrase has origins in the past of accounting where accountants manually checked financial information in their records before hardware and software were used.

Accountants used various colored inks— both black and red — to indicate the productivity of a product. Unlike a black business, in the red is seen as one of with unfavorable results or unprofitable.

5 0
4 years ago
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