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Vadim26 [7]
3 years ago
7

Carrie D's has 8 million shares of common stock outstanding, 6 million shares of preferred stock outstanding, and 30 thousand bo

nds. If the common shares are selling for $12 per share, the preferred shares are selling for $30 per share, and the bonds are selling for 110 percent of par, what would be the weight used for equity in the computation of Carrie D's WACC
Business
1 answer:
mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Weight of equity = 0.31067 or 31.067%  or   96/309

Explanation:

WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the cost of a firm's capital structure which can comprise of debt, preferred stock and common equity. The WACC for a firm can be calculated as follows,

WACC = wD * rD * (1-tax rate)  +  wP * rP  +  wE * rE

Where,

  • w represents the weight of each component based on market value in the capital structure
  • r represents the cost of each component
  • D, P and E represents debt, preferred stock and common equity respectively

To calculate the weight of equity in WACC computation, we first need to find out the Market value(MV) of each component and the market value of the overall capital structure.

MV of common equity = 8 million shares * 12 per share

MV of common equity = $96 million

MV of Preferred stock = 6 million shares * 30 per share

MV of Preferred stock = $180 million

The bonds are usually have a par value of $1000 unless specified otherwise.

MV of debt = 30 thousand * $1000 * 110%

MV of debt = $33 million

MV of total capital Structure = 96 + 180 + 33  => $309 million

Weight of equity = 96 / 309

Weight of equity = 0.31067 or 31.067%  or   96/309

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Builtrite had sales of $700,000 and cogs of $280,000. in addition, operating expenses were calculated at 25% of sales. builtrite
Leni [432]

This is the presentation of the income statement of Builtrite in order to compute the net income:

Sales                                                                                   $700,000

Less: COGS                                                                        $280,000

Gross Profit                                                                         $420,000

Less: Operating expenses ($700,000 x 25%)    $175,000

          Dividends expense                                   $25,000

          Capital loss                                               $70,000    $270,000

Total                                                                                     $150,000

Add: Dividend income                                         $40,000

          Capital gain                                               $55,000    $95,000

Net income                                                                           $245,000

3 0
3 years ago
Happinessistheroad Corp. has the following information available regarding its labor: Managers expected to pay $11 per direct la
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

The actual labor rate per hour is $12

Explanation:

First and foremost, we need to understand that a direct labor spending variance of $990(unfavorable) means that the firm spent an additional $990 compared to what was expected.

Also, the spending variance is computed as the actual labor rate minus the standard labor rate multiplied by the actual labor hours worked

spending variance=(actual labor rate-standard labor rate)*actual labor hours

spending variance=$990

actual labor rate=unknown=(assume it is X)

standard labor rate=$11

actual labor hours worked=990

$990=(X-$11)*990

$990/990=X-$11

$1=X-$11

X=$1+$11

X=actual labor rate=$12

8 0
2 years ago
Under the percentage of completion method, if the actual costs are ____ the estimated costs, the taxpayer must pay interest on t
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

The correct answer is Less than the estimated costs.

Explanation:

The percentage method completed is an accounting practice used to recognize income in long-term contracts.

When long-term projects (greater than one year) are undertaken, the costs and revenues associated with it are incurred throughout its life.

This accounting method, as its name suggests, allows the company to account for part of the associated income and expenses incurred as the project phases are completed. Thus, the percentage complete method is understood as a method of recognition of recognition of income and expenses that is applied continuously without having to defer income and expenses at the end of the project.

8 0
3 years ago
In the text's business plan model, recognition of potentially unreliable sales forecasts and industry trends, and uncertain raw
bixtya [17]
Dont know this im sorry
8 0
3 years ago
A couple thinking about retirement decide to put aside $2,100 each year in a savings plan that earns 7% interest. In 10 years th
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

310,588.5

Explanation:

As is not said we can assume the 2,100 each year to be paid at the end of the year, and the 7% to be used as a compunded anually rate. So let´s first think just about the 2,100, as they are regulary payments, they can be seen as an anuity inmediate, the formula is as follows:

s_{n}=p*\frac{(1+i)^{n}-1 }{i}

where sn is the future value of the regular payments, i is the interest rate and n is the number of payments and p is the amount of regular payment so in this particular case we have:

s_{n}=2,100*\frac{(1+0.07)^{30}-1 }{0.07}

s_{n}==198,367.65

So now let´s think on the gift of 29,000 as it is paid on 10 years, there will remain 20 years with an investment rate of 7% compounded anually. so there we have the classic formula of future value

FV=VP*(1+i)^{n}

where FV is the future value, PV is the present value, i is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods. Again in this particular case we have:

FV=29,000*(1+0.07)^{20}

FV=112,220.85

so the total amont will be:

total=198,367.65+112,220.85

total=310,588.5

8 0
3 years ago
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