Answer:
B) Inflation is everywhere and always a monetary phenomenon.
Explanation:
Henry Thornton developed this theory in 1802. According to the Quantity Theory, In an economy, there is a direct relationship between the quantity of money in the economy and the prices of goods and services. The price levels are directly related to the amount of money in circulation, which is the cause of inflation. Hence the consumer has to pay more for the same amount of commodity.
Answer:
Arbitrage opportunity may exists as the ZCBs selling at different price at same time due to change in their YTM .
The PV of 100 face value zcb with different ytm are different , in this case.
for one year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv/ pv at 8% = 92.59
for Two year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv / Pv at 9% for two years = 84.167 , if the bond holder sell the bond after 1 year only, the price = 91.74 .
a) The arbitrage opportunity exist with buy two bond with face value 100 with maturity of 1 year and face value 110 with maturity of 2 years.
b) profit 0.01 , as difference between PV of both bond at their YTM rate.
Answer:
Cost of good manufactured= $50000
Explanation:
Total manufacturing cost is the aggregate amount of cost incurred by a business to produce goods in a reporting period.
Generally accepted accounting principles require that the cost of goods sold shall consist of:
the cost of direct materials
the cost of direct labor
the cost of manufacturing overhead
<u>Expenses that are outside of the manufacturing facilities, such as selling, general and administrative expenses, are not product costs. </u>They are reported as expenses on the income statement in the accounting period in which they occur.
In this exercise:
<u>Cost of goods manufactured:</u>
Direct materials= $15000
Direct Labor=$30000
Factory overhead=$5000
Total= $50000
Imari Brown should choose $1,000 tax credit since it reduces her taxes by $1,000. Tax credit is a big help for her because it can also reduced her tax by $1000, it is a big saving to her since she still attending community college.
Answer:
$0.215
Explanation:
The computation of the cost per item in Group 1 is shown below:-
Candy amount paid = $3,100
Item received = 7,100
For Group 1
Sale value = Group 1 units × Selling price
= 2,110 × $0.15
= $316.5
For Group 2
Sale value = Group 2 units × Selling price
= 4,720 × $0.35
= $1,652
For Group 3
Sale value = Group 3 units × Selling price
= 270 × $0.71
= $191.7
= Total sale value = $316.5 + $1,652 + $191.7
= $2,160.2
So, Sale percentage for Group 1 = $316.5 ÷ $2,160.2
= 14.65%
Now, the proportion of cost for Group 1
= $3,100 × 14.65%
= 454.15
Cost per unit = Proportion cost ÷ Group 1 units
= $454.15 ÷ 2,110
= $0.215
