Answer:
a) diluted earnings per share = 0
Explanation:
Diluted earnings per share (DEPS) is a recalculation of the basic EPS. The difference between DEPS and EPS is, EPS represents the current position of earnings per share. No changes in number shares and/or earnings in the future are incorporated in the basic EPS.
Whereas DEPS is a representation of not only the current position of earnings and shares but also includes the commitments an entity has already made whose occurrence may result in an increase/decrease in the amount of earnings and/or number of shares. For example, in the question Culver Company has issued 10-year convertible bonds which right now have no impact on basic EPS but if in the future these bond holders exercise their right of conversion, this would result in an increase in number of ordinary shares hence decreasing/diluting the basic EPS. The entities use DEPS to show shareholders the impact of such commitments on the basic EPS to improve their decision making.
So in 2017 none of the bonds were converted therefore no diluted earnings per share is calculated in 2017.
If all of the bonds were converted in 2017 the DEPS would have been calculated as follows:
The formula for calculating DEPS is as follows;
DEPS = (Net income + interest savings) ÷ number of ordinary shares + increase in ordinary shares as a result of conversion.
Tax savings as a result of conversion=$128400 ($2140000×6%). Because if bond holders convert into ordinary shares then Culver company will not have to pay them interest and hence the amount of interest is saved.
Increase in ordinary shares upon conversion= 29960 ($2140000÷$1000=2140 bonds. Each bond is convertible into 14 shares therefore, 2140×14=29960).
Now Lets calculate DEPS as follows;
DEPS = ($296000+$128400) ÷ 91000+29960
DEPS =$424400÷120960
DEPS = $3.5
Answer:
The options are given below:
A. Firm X
B. Firm Y
C. Same variability of operating profits
D. It would depend on tax effect on taxable income
The correct option is B. Firm Y
Explanation:
This is because firm Y has a higher operating leverage than firm X.
<u>Operating Leverage</u> refers to a cost-accounting formula that measures the degree to which a firm can increase operating income by increasing revenue. Operating leverage actually boils down to the analysis of fixed costs and variable costs, and it is highest in companies that have a high fixed operating costs in comparison with variable operating costs. What this means is that this kind of company makes use of more fixed assets. On the other hand, operating leverage is lowest in companies that have a low fixed operating costs when compared with variable operating costs.
Companies with high operating leverage are capable of making more money from each additional sale if they do not have to incur more costs to produce more sales.
Therefore, from the scenario given above, we can conclude that firm Y has a higher operating leverage than firm X, because firm X has lower fixed costs than firm Y, and a higher variable cost than firm Y as well. Hence, firm Y has the potential to make more operating profits from its business activities.
If the customer wants "to table" the discussion on price then I assume he wants to hold it for later ie not deal with it right now but defer it to a later date perhaps to when more data is available either from Melanie or from him to be able to make the discussion more meaningful.
Answer:
true is the answer according to me
