Answer:
debit to Sales allowance of $50
Explanation:
When some defect in a product is revealed or notified by the buyer, the seller usually grants the customer an allowance which is termed as sales allowance.
It is usually allowed when the customer agrees to keep the product instead of returning the defective product which would constitute sales returns.
Following journal entry is recorded for recording sales allowance
Sales Allowance A/C Dr. $ 50
To Accounts Receivable $50
(Being allowance for defects recorded)
Sales allowance is deducted from gross sales before the customer makes payment.
Answer:
The correct option is Debit Cash $1,864,097; debit Discount on Bonds Payable $135,903; credit Bonds Payable $2,000,000.
Explanation:
This question is an instance of bonds issued at a discount. This happens when a bond is issued below the face value of the bond and also happens when the coupon rate on the bond payable is less than the market rate.
The face value of the bond payable is $2,000,000 while the market value is $1,864,097, so there is a discount of $2,000,000 - $1,864,097 = $135,903 on the bond payable, which is to be amortized over the life of the bond payable.
So, the appropriate journals to record this transaction is as provided above.
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
Answer:
NPV is $28.5 million
Payback is 4.31 years
IRR is 13.25%
MIRR is 12.51%
Explanation:
The NPV,payback period,Internal rate of return and modified internal rate of return were computed in the attached spreadsheet.
Payback period=the year of the first positive cumulative cash flow+the year cumulative cash flow/the next year cash flow
the year of first positive cumulative flow is year 4
the cumulative cash flow for year 4 is $66 m
the next year cash flow is(year 5) is $210
payback=4.31
