Can someone please prove that the expression (x-y)+(y-z)+(z-x) is equivalent to 0
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Hello there! We are given the following equation and want to simplify it:
First, let's use the Distributive Property:
For this step, we are going to let:
After applying this version of the Distributive Property, we are given the equation:
We're going to use the distributive party again, but a slightly different version that's almost the same as first:
Using this on both terms of the equation changes the equation to:
Now, we just remove the parenthesis and combine like terms
This should be your answer. Let me know if you need any clarifications, thanks!
~ Padoru
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Refer to the picture above.
Explainations are written in the pic above.
Using limits, it is found that the infinite sequence converges, as the limit does not go to infinity.
<h3>How do we verify if a sequence converges of diverges?</h3>Suppose an infinity sequence defined by:
Then we have to calculate the following limit:
If the <u>limit goes to infinity</u>, the sequence diverges, otherwise it converges.
In this problem, the function that defines the sequence is:
Hence the limit is:
Hence, the infinite sequence converges, as the limit does not go to infinity.
More can be learned about convergent sequences at brainly.com/question/6635869
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