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lara31 [8.8K]
3 years ago
5

\f(x) = \left\{

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleks [24]3 years ago
6 0

<u>Answer:</u><u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f(</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f(0</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f(0)</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f(0)=</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f(0)=0</u>

<u>The number 0 falls in the interval -1 < x ≤ 1, so we use the formula f(x) = x to evaluate f(0).f(0)=0We get f(0) = 0.</u><u> </u><u>the </u><u>answer </u><u>is </u><u>a</u>

<u>step </u><u>by </u><u>step:</u>

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3 years ago
Learning Diagnostic
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

  no

Step-by-step explanation:

The given lengths do not satisfy the Pythagorean theorem:

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<em>Alternate solution</em>

You can also compute 34² -33² = (34+33)(34-33) = 67·1 = 67 ≠ 16².

Even simpler, a Pythagorean triple will never have zero or two even numbers. The numbers (16, 33, 34) cannot be a Pythagorean triple.

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