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3 years ago

On your last math quiz, you got 15

Mathematics

1 answer:

dlinn [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer: 75%

Step-by-step explanation: So 15/20 simplified is 3/4 and 3 divided by 4 equals 0.75. To convert a decimal to a percentage, you multiply 0.75 by 100 to get 75%.

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There are 16 students in a class with wooden pencils. There are 20 students in a class with mechanical pencils. If a school has

svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

maybe 100 cheak it please

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Given that triangle ABC is a right triangle, select a set of possible side length measurements

Elza [17]

Answer:

4,5,6 / 6,8,10 / 5,12,13 / ....

Step-by-step explanation:

Base on the pythagorean theorem, we have : a² + b² = c².
The first set : 4,5,6 - 4² + 5² = 6² (a possible set)
The second set : 6² + 8² = 10² (another possible set)
The last set : 5² + 12² = 13² (also possible)

There are a lot more sets, but I'll only list 3. Hope this helps :)

3 0

2 years ago

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

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3 years ago

Find the area of the shaded region

xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

25.12

Step-by-step explanation:

8π = P

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3 years ago

Caroline ordered 126 shirts: She plans to decorate the shirts

Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

25 and there a leftpover of 2

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago