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andrey2020 [161]
3 years ago
11

Which expression is equivalent to (3^2)^-2

Mathematics
1 answer:
SVETLANKA909090 [29]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

слишком сложно

Step-by-step explanation:

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Plsss help me with this, Brainlist!!!
irina [24]

Answer:

1. -3

2. 12

youre welcome

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3 years ago
Hey please help this is due today ​
Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

100

Step-by-step explanation:

Write in an equation:

4=4%x, then divide 4% from both sides, and then you get 100.

7 0
2 years ago
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Solve the proportion.
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

you use older of operations to solve this

3 0
3 years ago
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A store has a 20% sale on everything. An item originally cost 350 AED. What is the sale price? Show your work of how you calcula
slega [8]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A store has a 20% sale on everything.

So since you are saving 20%, you will only be paying 80% of the original price.

To find the sale price use the following formula:

Sale price = 80% x original price

They told us the original price = 350 AED

This means:

Sale price = 80% x 350

I think it would be easiest to change 80% into a fraction if you don't have a calculator :)

80% = \frac{80}{100}  = \frac{4}{5}

This means that the

Sale Price= \frac{4}{5} x 350 = 280 AED

6 0
3 years ago
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3. Assume that the likelihood of a child under the age of ten watching PBS is 0.76. Three children are
natta225 [31]

Using the binomial distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:

a) 0.4159 = 41.59%.

b) 0.5610 = 56.10%.

c) 0.8549 = 85.49%.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

For this problem, the values of the parameters are:

n = 3, p = 0.76.

Item a:

The probability is P(X = 2), hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{3,2}.(0.76)^{2}.(0.24)^{1} = 0.4159

Item b:

The probability is P(X < 3), hence:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{3,3}.(0.76)^{3}.(0.24)^{0} = 0.4390

Then:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3) = 1 - 0.4390 = 0.5610 = 56.10%.

Item c:

The probability is:

P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.4159 + 0.4390 = 0.8549

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
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