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Fynjy0 [20]
3 years ago
7

-20y + 4y = 4 - 8y - 4

Mathematics
1 answer:
fredd [130]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

y = 0, since 0 is the only number capable of being equal to multiple of itself.

Step-by-step explanation:

-20y + 4y = 4 - 8y - 4

-16y = -8y

2y = y

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Hey lads could you please check out my channel on you.tube please leave a like and subscribe it would help a lot much love stay
Orlov [11]

Answer:

sure

Step-by-step explanation:

best of luck

5 0
3 years ago
Shreya has 40 pairs of shoes stacked in boxes.
GaryK [48]

Answer:

80 shoes

Step-by-step explanation:

sin e a pair is 2 shoes,

Shreya has 40×2shoes

= 80 shoes

therefore, Shreya has 80 shoes

3 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the probability of winning a lottery by selecting the correct six integers, where the order in which these inte
stich3 [128]

The probability of winning a lottery by selecting the correct six integers, are

\begin{aligned}&(a) 1.68 \times 10^{-6} \\&(b) 5.13 \times 10^{-7} \\& (c) 1.91 \times 10^{-7} \\&(d)8.15 \times 10^{-8}\end{aligned}

<h3>What is binomial distribution?</h3>

The binomial distribution is a type of probability distribution that expresses the probability that, given a certain set of characteristics or assumptions, a value would take one of two distinct values.

Part (a); positive integers not exceeding 30.

To calculate the probability, use binomial coefficients. Pick six of the six accurate integers and none of the other twenty-four.

\frac{\left(\begin{array}{c}6 \\6\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c}24 \\0\end{array}\right)}{\left(\begin{array}{c}30 \\6\end{array}\right)}=\frac{1}{\left(\begin{array}{c}30 \\6\end{array}\right)}=1.68 \times 10^{-6}

Part (b); positive integers not exceeding 36.

To calculate the probability, use binomial coefficients. Pick six of the six accurate integers and none of the other thirty.

\frac{\left(\begin{array}{l}6 \\6\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c}30 \\0\end{array}\right)}{\left(\begin{array}{c}36 \\6\end{array}\right)}=\frac{1}{\left(\begin{array}{c}36 \\6\end{array}\right)}=5.13 \times 10^{-7}

Part (c); positive integers not exceeding 42.

To calculate the probability, use binomial coefficients. Pick six of the six accurate integers and none of the 36 other integers.

\frac{\left(\begin{array}{l}6 \\6\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c}36 \\0\end{array}\right)}{\left(\begin{array}{c}42 \\6\end{array}\right)}=\frac{1}{\left(\begin{array}{c}42 \\6\end{array}\right)}=1.91 \times 10^{-7}

Part (d); positive integers not exceeding 48.

To calculate the probability, use binomial coefficients. Choose six of the six accurate integers and none of the other 42.

\frac{\left(\begin{array}{l}6 \\6\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c}42 \\0\end{array}\right)}{\left(\begin{array}{c}48 \\6\end{array}\right)}=\frac{1}{\left(\begin{array}{c}48 \\6\end{array}\right)}=8.15 \times 10^{-8}

To know more about binomial probability, here

brainly.com/question/9325204

#SPJ4

The complete question is-

Find the probability of winning a lottery by selecting the correct six integers, where the order in which these integers are selected does not matter, from the positive integers not exceeding a) 30. b) 36. c) 42. d) 48.

5 0
2 years ago
Plz help me will give brainlest I hate my <br>math teacher and the ones I need help with are 3-7
victus00 [196]
I can't do 3 and 4 for you but I can do 5 6 and 7.


5. Hotel B

6. Hotel B

7. Hotel A
-There are fewer values in the dataset
- In general, the values seem to increase in intervals of 20

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find MP………………………………….
devlian [24]

Answer:

MP = 29

Step-by-step explanation:

MP = 17 + 3y

5y + 9 = 17 + 3y

      -9    -9

5y = 8 + 3y

-3y        -3y

2y = 8

2y / 2 = 8 / 2

y = 4

MP = 17 + 3 (4)

MP = 29

5 0
1 year ago
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