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podryga [215]
3 years ago
9

IM GONNA CRY MY EYES OUT PLEASE HELP ME Type the correct answer in the box. Spell the words correctly.

Business
1 answer:
Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 3%

Explanation:

Interest is tax deductible which means that companies are charged taxes only after they pay off the interest they owe on debt.

In order to calculate the after-tax cost of debt, use the following formula:

= Interest rate * ( 1 - tax rate)

= 5% * ( 1 - 40%)

= 3%

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When private ownership rights are well-defined and enforced, owners of physical assets and resources
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

b. incur the opportunity cost of ignoring the wishes of others.

Explanation:

Opportunity cost in economics is seen as the forgone cost of doing something.

So in this instance where private ownership rights are well defined, everyone knows what is his own and what belongs to others.

The opportunity cost of this will be to ignore the wishes of others. They must now consider the wishes of others.

8 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2018, Gillock Climbing Academy instituted a defined benefit pension plan for its employees. The annual service cos
Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

Pension Expense = EBE = $593440 for income statement

Explanation:

The opening balance of the Plan asset is made by the 40000 from 2018 plus interest of 32000 and the new 400000 made this year. Why include it? Because an opening balance are the funds in an account at the beginning of the year either from last year or are from current year but should be the first entry in the books of the current year.

                                                                 DBO                plan asset       EBE

opening balance                                   (600000)            832000             -

interest                                                   ( 60000)              66560            6560

current year's service cost                    (600000)                               (600000)

                                                            (  1260000 )            898560      <u> 593440</u>

 balance sheet liability = 361440

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Marcy and Liz developed a new jewelry design. They were fortunate to get the attention of a large online retailer who was willin
snow_tiger [21]

Answer: Exclusive distribution

Explanation:

Exclusive distribution is defined as the agreement in which a parties involved are manufacturer and distributor.It states that the particular distributor cannot sell their service or item to any other party .It binds the agreement that product can be sold to the exclusive distributor.

According to the situation mentioned in the question, designers are asked for exclusive distribution by the retailer.Retailer does not wants that design of jewelry to be sold through any other source or retailer for effective sale.Thus agreement upon this matter is proposed by the retailer.

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a major difference between a budget constraint and production possibilities frontier?
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

The Production possibilities frontiers is a curve that shows the various combination of two goods a company can produce when all its resources are fully utilised.  

The PPF is concave to the origin. This means that as more quantities of a product is produced, the fewer resources it has available to produce another good. As a result, less of the other product would be produced. So, the opportunity cost of producing a good increase as more and more of that good is produced.  

So, the PPF exhibits diminishing return. The slope of the PPF is different at different points. this makes the PPF a curve

the budget constraint is a straight line that shows the various combinations of goods a consumer can consume given her income. the budget constraint is a straight line because the slope is constant at each point on the curve

Also, the slope of the budget constraint is the relative prices of the two goods

8 0
3 years ago
You have a loan outstanding. It requires making three annual payments at the end of the next three years of $1000 each. Your ban
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

$2722.82

Explanation:

Present value of loan = $1,000 * [(1+5%)^3 - 1]/ 5%

= $1,000 * (1.157625 - 1) / 0.05

= $1,000 * 0.157625/ 0.05

= $1,000 * 3.1525

= $3152.50

The present value of loan before bank restructuring is $3152.

Future value = Cash flow / (1+r)^n

= $3152 / (1+0.05)^3

= $3152 / (1.05)^3

= $3152 / 1.157625

= $2722.82

Therefore, the final payment required to pay to make indifferent for both payment is $2722.82

6 0
3 years ago
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