If a video game tested 50 games how many will not work

Mathematics

2 answers:

Dafna11 [192]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Can you add to the question? This isn't possible to answer without more information.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry :/

aleksandr82 [10.1K]3 years ago

7 0

It need more to it. And not getting at it.

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Prove the following DeMorgan's laws: if LaTeX: XX, LaTeX: AA and LaTeX: BB are sets and LaTeX: \{A_i: i\in I\} {Ai:i∈I} is a fam

MariettaO [177]

$X-(A\cup B)=(X-A)\cap(X-B)$

I'll assume the usual definition of set difference, $X-A=\{x\in X,x\not\in A\}$ .

Let $x\in X-(A\cup B)$ . Then $x\in X$ and $x\not\in(A\cup B)$ . If $x\not\in(A\cup B)$ , then $x\not\in A$ and $x\not\in B$ . This means $x\in X,x\not\in A$ and $x\in X,x\not\in B$ , so it follows that $x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B)$ . Hence $X-(A\cup B)\subset(X-A)\cap(X-B)$ .

Now let $x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B)$ . Then $x\in X-A$ and $x\in X-B$ . By definition of set difference, $x\in X,x\not\in A$ and $x\in X,x\not\in B$ . Since $x\not A,x\not\in B$ , we have $x\not\in(A\cup B)$ , and so $x\in X-(A\cup B)$ . Hence $(X-A)\cap(X-B)\subset X-(A\cup B)$ .

The two sets are subsets of one another, so they must be equal.

$X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)=\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)$

The proof of this is the same as above, you just have to indicate that membership, of lack thereof, holds for all indices $i\in I$ .

Proof of one direction for example:

Let $x\in X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)$ . Then $x\in X$ and $x\not\in\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i$ , which in turn means $x\not\in A_i$ for all $i\in I$ . This means $x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_1}$ , and $x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_2}$ , and so on, where $\{i_1,i_2,\ldots\}\subset I$ , for all $i\in I$ . This means $x\in X-A_{i_1}$ , and $x\in X-A_{i_2}$ , and so on, so $x\in\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)$ . Hence $X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)\subset\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)$ .