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Andreas93 [3]
3 years ago
15

On January 1, 2018, Allgood Company purchased equipment and signed a six-year mortgagenote for $186,000 at 15%. The note will be

paid in equal annual installments of $49,148, beginningJanuary 1, 2019. Calculate the portion of interest expense paid on the third installment. (Roundyour answer to the nearest whole number.)A) $21,048 B) $164,752 C) $27,900 D) $49,148
Business
1 answer:
Ne4ueva [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A: interest= $21048

Explanation:

An amortization schedule is a complete table of periodic loan payments, showing the amount of principal and the amount of interest that comprise each payment until the loan is paid off at the end of its term. While each periodic payment is the same amount early in the schedule, the majority of each payment is interest; later in the schedule, the majority of each payment covers the loan's principal.

Each payment is the same ($49,148), but the proportions of interest and capital pay changes. The interest proportion decreases from pay to pay.

Loan= 186000

i= 15%

n= 6 years

First pay:

i=186000*0,15=27900

amortization= 49148-27900=21248

Second pay:

i=(186000-21248)*0,15=24712

amort=49148-24712=24436

Third pay:

i=(164752-24436)*0,15=21048

amort=49148-21048=28100

While payments progress, interest decreases and amortization increases.

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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The types of resources needed by a business are financial, physical, and labor resources.
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

The above is true because financial resources are needed to enable a business meet up with its daily activities in terms of funding. Also, physical resources are buildings, machineries and assets in general which are required to carry a business daily operations. The labor resources, which is the most important resources are the workforce that carry out the day to day operations of a business.

8 0
3 years ago
In which of the following market structures would X-inefficiency be most likely to exist?Perfect competition.Monopoly.Oligopoly.
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

Monopoly

Explanation:

Monopoly is a market structure where only one firm controls the market share and earn abnormal profits. In a monopoly market, a producer or a supplier earn abnormal profits, which is why they don't try to control the cost of production because they can sell the good at any price. This situation where the cost of production increases, it creates X-inefficiency.

6 0
3 years ago
Prahm Corp. wants to raise $4.4 million via a rights offering. The company currently has 500,000 shares of common stock outstand
Pavel [41]

Answer:

price for selling 3000 share right is $25060.87

Explanation:

Given data:

Total Amount raised=   $4,400,000  

Spreading rate = 6%

Subscription price =   $20 per share

Number of share owned by company = 500,000

Per share cost  = $45

Totals share own in the company = 3000

subscription price after deducting spreading rate = 20\times (1 -0.06) = $18.80

Now, Right share = \frac{4400000}{18.8} = 234,043

Right price is calculated as

Right price = ((Number of share held * market price) + (Right share *Right price))/( Number of share held + Right share)

plugging all value in above relation

                 = \frac{500000 \times 45 + 234043\times 18.8}{500000 + 234043}

Right share = $36.65

single right value = 45- 36.65 = $8.35

Price for 3000 share right = 8.35 *3000 = $25060.86

6 0
4 years ago
Demonstrate the required adjusting entry needed to record a $1,000 note receivable collected by the bank by choosing the correct
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

Debit Cash $1,000 and credit Notes Receivable $1,000.

Explanation:

The adjusting entry is shown below:

Cash Dr $1,000

    To Notes receivable $1,000

(Being the note receivable collected by the bank is recorded)    

While recording the transaction, we debited the cash account as it increases the cash balance and credited the note receivable.

Hence, the second option is correct

5 0
3 years ago
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