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3 years ago

Can someone please help.!

Mathematics

2 answers:

Scorpion4ik [409]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because this is the only value that will yield 40 when you have 0 as a x value

40(1/4) to the 0

which is 40*1=40

if my answer helps please mark as brainliest.

Marizza181 [45]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

C. 40(0.25)^x

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that it is an inverse function we can see that when x = 0, y = 40 and when x = 1, y = 10. Then you look for which function fits the criteria, given that only 40(0.25)^x does it is C.

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