All categories

3 years ago

Can someone please help.!

Mathematics

2 answers:

Scorpion4ik [409]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because this is the only value that will yield 40 when you have 0 as a x value

40(1/4) to the 0

which is 40*1=40

if my answer helps please mark as brainliest.

Marizza181 [45]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

C. 40(0.25)^x

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that it is an inverse function we can see that when x = 0, y = 40 and when x = 1, y = 10. Then you look for which function fits the criteria, given that only 40(0.25)^x does it is C.

You might be interested in

A hardware store sold 10 hammers and 120 packages of nails for $700. If it sells one hammer and one package of nails for $15, ho

ra1l [238]

A package of nails costs $5

8 0

3 years ago

Why must the compass point be placed on the points where the arc intersects with the original line?

PIT_PIT [208]

<span> In order to bisect an angle is the normal way by joining the vertex of the lines with the double arc that is created

i hope this helps you</span>

6 0

3 years ago

The amount $180.00 is what percent greater than $135.00

horsena [70]

33.33% is the answer.

7 0

3 years ago

An engineer on the ground is looking at the top of a building the angle of elevation to the top of the building is 22 degrees th

vekshin1

Hello,

tan 22°=450/d
==>d=450/tan 22°=1113.7890... ≈1114 (ft)

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

According to the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, 6% of American adults have a food allergy. A large compa

Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

a) The requirements is that each trial can only have two outcomes(success/failure), and each trial has the same probability of a success, that is, they are independent of each other.

In this problem, for each person, either they are allergic to some kind of food, or they are not. The probability of a person being allergic is independent of any other people. So this situations meets all these requirements.

b) The expected value is 30 and the standard deviation is 5.31.

c) Close to 0% probability that none of the 500 employees has a food allergy

Step-by-step explanation:

For each adult, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have food allergy, or they do not. The probability of an adult having allergy is independent of other adults. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

$E(X) = np$

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

$\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}$

6% of American adults have a food allergy

This means that $p = 0.06$

500 employees.

This means that $n = 500$

(a) What are the assumptions/requirements of a Binomial distribution? Does this situation meet all these requirements?

The requirements is that each trial can only have two outcomes(success/failure), and each trial has the same probability of a success, that is, they are independent of each other.

(b) What are the expected value and standard deviation of X (i.e., of the population)?

$E(X) = np = 500*0.06 = 30$

$\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{500*0.06*0.94} = 5.31$

The expected value is 30 and the standard deviation is 5.31.

(c) What is the probability that none of the 500 employees has a food allergy?

This is P(X = 0).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{500,0}.(0.06)^{0}.(0.94)^{500} \cong 0$

Close to 0% probability that none of the 500 employees has a food allergy

4 0

3 years ago