Answer: 
This is the same as writing (n-m)/n
Don't forget about the parenthesis if you go with the second option.
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Explanation:
The probability that she wins is m/n, where m,n are placeholders for positive whole numbers.
For instance, m = 2 and n = 5 leads to m/n = 2/5. This would mean that out of n = 5 chances, she wins m = 2 times.
The probability of her not winning is 1 - (m/n). We subtract the probability of winning from 1 to get the probability of losing.
We could leave the answer like this, but your teacher says that the answer must be "in the form of a combined single fraction".
Doing a bit of algebra would have these steps

and now the expression is one single fraction.
The answer is 10% because 10% of 40 is 4
6% is less than 48%. Due to the reason that 48% is a larger portion.
Step-by-step explanation:
![\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\frac{15-(-13)}{28-(-28)}\\=\frac{28}{2(28)}\\\therefore\ m=\frac{1}{2}\\\frac{y-y_1}{xl-x_1}=m]\\\frac{y+13}{x+28}=\frac{1}{2}\\2y+26=x+28\\2y=x+2\\ y=\frac{1}{2}x+1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7By_2-y_1%7D%7Bx_2-x_1%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7B15-%28-13%29%7D%7B28-%28-28%29%7D%5C%5C%3D%5Cfrac%7B28%7D%7B2%2828%29%7D%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%5C%20m%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7By-y_1%7D%7Bxl-x_1%7D%3Dm%5D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7By%2B13%7D%7Bx%2B28%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%5C2y%2B26%3Dx%2B28%5C%5C2y%3Dx%2B2%5C%5C%20y%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7Dx%2B1)
In order to find y for point C on AB, substitute point C in line equation if AB.

-3x - 18 = 0
-3x = 18
x = -6