Answer:
$135 Unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of total variance is shown below:-
For computing the total variance first we need to find out the actual price which is below:-
Actual price = Total cost ÷ Actual quantity
= $18,135 ÷ 3,100
= $5.85 pound
Now,
Total variance = Standard quantity × Standard price - Actual quantity × Actual price
= (($2,000 × 1.5) × $6) - 3,100 × $5.85
= 3,000 × $6 - 3,100 × $5.85
= $18,000 - $18135
= $135 Unfavorable.
Answer:
a. a decrease in AD and an increase in AS; fall in the price level and the decrease in real GDP
Explanation:
During a recession, the aggregate demand is the first to decrease. As a result of lower demand, inventories will increase resulting in an increase in the aggregate supply. Recessions tend to decrease inflation, which results in lower price levels and an overall decrease in real GDP. Recessions will continue until the aggregate demand increases again, increasing the aggregate supply.
Answer:
I am not sure but researching these topics would be very helpful
Explanation:
Answer:
<u>$54,000</u>
Explanation:
First, we add the ratios together to determine the total parts:
3+2= 5
Next, we divide the cash balance of $90,000 by the total parts:
$90,000/5 = $18,000
To find the amount of cash distributed to Adriana we multiply by her ratio:
5*18,000 = $54,000.
Answer: a. More of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years.
Explanation:
When a project has its cashflows occurring in later years, the NPV will be less because the discount rate would have a greater period to discount it in as opposed to cashflows that occur more recently which would receive less discounting from the discount rate.
As a result of Project A having more distant cashflows, the discount rate discounted its cash flows more which is why higher rates led to its NPV being zero because those higher rates got to discount it over a longer period.