Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
$30 - $6 for the magazine = $24 ÷ $3 for one candy bar = 8 candy bars
Answer:








Step-by-step explanation:
Given

Convert the probability to decimal

Solving (a): P(ABC)
This is calculated as:

This gives:


Solving (b): 
This is calculated as:

In probability:

So, we have:




Solving (c): 
This is calculated as:

![P(AB^cC) = P(A) * [1 - P(B)] * P(C)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28AB%5EcC%29%20%3D%20P%28A%29%20%2A%20%5B1%20-%20P%28B%29%5D%20%2A%20P%28C%29)



Solving (d): 
This is calculated as:

![P(A^cBC) = [1-P(A)] *P(B) * P(C)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcBC%29%20%3D%20%5B1-P%28A%29%5D%20%2AP%28B%29%20%2A%20P%28C%29)



Solving (e): 
This is calculated as:

![P(AB^cC^c) = P(A) * [1-P(B)] * [1-P(C)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28AB%5EcC%5Ec%29%20%20%3D%20P%28A%29%20%2A%20%5B1-P%28B%29%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-P%28C%29%5D)
![P(AB^cC^c) = 0.48 * [1-0.48] * [1-0.48]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28AB%5EcC%5Ec%29%20%20%3D%200.48%20%2A%20%5B1-0.48%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-0.48%5D)


Solving (f): 
This is calculated as:

![P(A^cBC^c) = [1-P(A)] * P(B) * [1-P(C)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcBC%5Ec%29%20%20%20%3D%20%5B1-P%28A%29%5D%20%2A%20P%28B%29%20%2A%20%5B1-P%28C%29%5D)
![P(A^cBC^c) = [1-0.48] * 0.48 * [1-0.48]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcBC%5Ec%29%20%20%20%3D%20%5B1-0.48%5D%20%2A%200.48%20%2A%20%5B1-0.48%5D)


Solving (g): 
This is calculated as:

![P(A^cB^cC) = [1-P(A)] * [1-P(B)] * P(C)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcB%5EcC%29%20%20%3D%20%5B1-P%28A%29%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-P%28B%29%5D%20%2A%20P%28C%29)
![P(A^cB^cC) = [1-0.48] * [1-0.48] * 0.48](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcB%5EcC%29%20%20%3D%20%5B1-0.48%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-0.48%5D%20%2A%200.48)


Solving (h): 
This is calculated as:

![P(A^cB^cC^c) = [1-P(A)] * [1-P(B)] * [1-P(C)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcB%5EcC%5Ec%29%20%20%3D%20%5B1-P%28A%29%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-P%28B%29%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-P%28C%29%5D)
![P(A^cB^cC^c) = [1-0.48] * [1-0.48] * [1-0.48]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A%5EcB%5EcC%5Ec%29%20%20%3D%20%5B1-0.48%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-0.48%5D%20%2A%20%5B1-0.48%5D)


Answer:
-45, -44, -43
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the smallest consecutive integer be x. Consecutive integers have a difference of 1, so the next consecutive integer must be x+1, and the next is x+2. Since they all add up to -135, we can form this equation: x+x+1+x+2=-132. When you solve, x should be -45, which is the smallest in the set. So the next must be -45+1=-44, and the next is -44+1 which is -43.
Answer:
True
Step-by-step explanation:
Using a random chance procedure to assign subjects to treatment or control reduces bias. d. In a blind experiment, the subjects do not know whether they are in the treatment group or control group.