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Karolina [17]
2 years ago
14

At an annual effective interest rate of 6.3%, an annuity immediate with 4N level annual payments of 1,000 has a present value of

14,113. Determine the fraction (in percentage) of the total present value represented by the first set of N payments and the third set otâ…£ payments combined.
Business
1 answer:
LuckyWell [14K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$8,949.22

Explanation:

PV = annual payment x PV annuity factor

PV annuity factor = 14,133 / 1,000 = 14.133

PV annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.063)ⁿ ] / 0.063

14.133 x 0.063 = 1 - 1/(1 + 0.063)ⁿ

0.890379 = 1 - 1/(1 + 0.063)ⁿ

1/(1 + 0.063)ⁿ = 0.109621

1 / 0.109621 = 1.063ⁿ

9.12234 = 1.063ⁿ

n = log 9.12234 / log 1.063 = 0.96010624 / 0.0265333 = 36

the present value of the first 36/4 = 9 payments = $1,000 x 6.71376 (PV annuity factor, 9 periods, 6.3%) = $6,713.76

the present value of the third set of 9 payments = $6,713.76 / (1 + 6.3%)¹⁸ = $2,235.46

present value of the first and third sets = $8,949.22

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8 0
2 years ago
1. All of the following would be classified as manufacturing overhead except the: A) wages of supervisor of the machining shop.
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

D) All of the above would be classified as manufacturing overhead.

Explanation:

Manufacturing overhead is the overhead incurred directly in relation to the manufacturing process.

It can be fixed as well as variable, there is no standard conclusion for the above on the basis of nature of overhead.

Machining shop is a part of manufacturing process, and all expense related to that will be classified as manufacturing overhead, whether the expense is in cash like supervisor salary, property taxes of building of machining shop, or non cash expense like depreciation.

Therefore, all the expenses will be included in manufacturing overhead.

8 0
3 years ago
Which statement is false?
Law Incorporation [45]
I think A but not 100% sure
5 0
3 years ago
The following account appears in the ledger prior to recognizing the jobs completed in January:
Pie

Answer:

A. Dr Finished Goods $560,240.00

Cr Work In Process $560,240.00

B. $76,760.00

Explanation:

A. Preparation of the journal entry to record the jobs complete

First step is to Calculate the amount of total jobs completed

Job 210 182,500.00

Job 224 232,190.00

Job 216 78,300.00

Job 230 67,250.00

Cost of completed jobs 560,240.00

(182,500.00+232,190.00+78,300.00+67,250.00)

Now let prepare the Journal Entry

Dr Finished Goods $560,240.00

Cr Work In Process $560,240.00

B. Calculation to Determine the cost of the unfinished jobs at January 31.

First step is to calculate the work in process Amount

Balance at January 1 85,800.00

Add Direct Materials 115,000.00

Add Direct Labor 140,000.00

Add Factory Overhead 296,200.00

Balance in work in process 637,000.00

Now let determine the cost of the unfinished jobs at January 31

Balance in work in process 637,000.00

Less: Cost of completed jobs 560,240.00

Cost of unfinished jobs on January 31 76,760.00

Therefore the cost of the unfinished jobs at January 31 will be $76,760.00

3 0
3 years ago
In the Trial Balance:
Mariana [72]

Answer:

Option A

Explanation:

  • Debit is for increasing expenses and assets
  • Where as credit decreases them.

As per Newtons third law every action has a equal and opposite reaction

  • So every debit have a equal credit in trial balance.

Opt A is correct

6 0
2 years ago
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