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Dima020 [189]
3 years ago
11

Answer this plz,it’s due TODAY!

Mathematics
1 answer:
zimovet [89]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Here's my best:

Pictures, videos, comment section. These make the program more interactive and engage the user.  The comment section allows feedback and will give ideas for a future blog.

Step-by-step explanation:

Holy cow, got the same online program and section on blogs. If your on chromebook take screenshot with ctrl and the square with two lines next to it.

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the mean is 4.2

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the values of x and y - i will give brainliest if right
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itd x=68 and y=5 I apolgize if its wrong

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There are a total of 120 counters in a box.
Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

The ratio of red to blue would be 60: 6 which can be simplified to 10:1.

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A metalworker has a metal alloy that is 20​% copper and another alloy that is 60​% copper. How many kilograms of each alloy shou
puteri [66]
<h3>Answer:</h3>
  • <u>20</u> kg of 20%
  • <u>80</u> kg of 60%
<h3>Step-by-step explanation:</h3>

I like to use a little X diagram to work mixture problems like this. The constituent concentrations are on the left; the desired mix is in the middle, and the right legs of the X show the differences along the diagonal. These are the ratio numbers for the constituents. Reducing the ratio 32:8 gives 4:1, which totals 5 "ratio units". We need a total of 100 kg of alloy, so each "ratio unit" stands for 100 kg/5 = 20 kg of constituent.

That is, we need 80 kg of 60% alloy and 20 kg of 20% alloy for the product.

_____

<em>Using an equation</em>

If you want to write an equation for the amount of contributing alloy, it works best to let a variable represent the quantity of the highest-concentration contributor, the 60% alloy. Using x for the quantity of that (in kg), the amount of copper in the final alloy is ...

... 0.60x + 0.20(100 -x) = 0.52·100

... 0.40x = 32 . . . . . . . . . . .collect terms, subtract 20

... x = 32/0.40 = 80 . . . . . kg of 60% alloy

... (100 -80) = 20 . . . . . . . .kg of 20% alloy

6 0
4 years ago
g A lawyer commutes daily from his suburban home to his midtown office. The average time for a one-way trip is 24 minutes, with
rodikova [14]

Answer:

a) 85.31%

b) 56 minutes

c) 17 days

d) 0.1721

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to make the calculations easier, let's <em>standardize the curve</em> by doing the change

Z=\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}

where \mu is the average trip-time and \sigma the standard deviation and

P(X≤ t) is the probability that the trip takes less than t  minutes.

a)

Here we are looking for the value of P(X>20).

For X=20 we have Z = (20-24)/3.8 = -1.05

So, we want the area under the standard normal curve for Z > -1.05

that we can compute either using a table or a computer and we find this area equals 0.8531

So, he arrives late to work 85.31% of the times.

(See picture 1 attached)

b)

In this case we are looking for a value t of time such that

P(X≥ t) = 20% = 0.2

So, we are seeking a value Z such that the area under the normal curve to the left of Z equals 0.2

By using a table or a computer we find Z = 0.842

(See picture 2 attached)

By inserting this value in the equation on standardization  

0.842=\frac{X-24}{38}\Rightarrow X=38*0.842+24=55.996

So 20% of the longest trips takes 55.996 ≅ 56 minutes

c)

Since the average of days he arrives late is 85.31%, it is expected that in 20 work days he arrives late 85.31% of 20, which equals 17 days.

d)

Since the probability that he does not arrive late is 1-0.8531 = 0.1469 and the probability of arriving early is independent of the previous trip,

the probability of arriving early n days in a row is

0.1496*0.1496*...*0.1496 n times and

the probability of being early most than 10 trips in 20 days is

(0.1469)+(0.1469)^2+(0.1469)^3+...+(0.1469)^10=0.1721

3 0
3 years ago
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