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3 years ago

A bond has a 7.5% annual coupon rate with 4 years to maturity and pays annual coupon. par value is $1000

Business

1 answer:

AveGali [126]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

1.1 Inflow (Coupon payment ) = $1000 * 7.5% = $75

Year Inflows Pvf at 5% Present value

1 75 0.952381 71.43

2 75 0.907029 68.03

3 75 0.863838 64.79

4 75 0.822702 61.70

4 1000 0.822702 822.70

Total 1,088.65

Price of Bond, when yield to maturity is 5% = $1088.65

1.2 Year Inflows Pvf at 5.2% Present value

1 75 0.95057 71.29

2 75 0.9035839 67.77

3 75 0.85892 64.42

4 75 0.816464 61.23

4 1000 0.816464 816.46

Total 1,081.18

Price of Bond, when yield to maturity is 5.2% =$1081.18

1.3 Change in price of Bond = (Decrease in price of bond / price of bond ) * 100

= $7.47 / 1088.65 *100

= 0.69%

Change in price of Bond when yield increases by 0.2%( i.e Decrease in price of bond)

= $1088.65 - $ 1081.18

= $7.47

1.4 Year Inflows Pvf at 5% P. value Year*P. value

1 75 0.9523809 71.43 71.43

2 75 0.907029 68.03 136.05

3 75 0.863838 64.79 194.36

4 75 0.822702 61.70 246.81

4 1000 0.822702 822.70 3,290.81

Total 1,088.65 3,939.47

Modified duration = Bond duration / ( 1+YTM)

= 3.6187 / ( 1+0.05)

= 3.446

Bond Duration = Sum of (PV of inflows) / Sum of (Year*PV of inflows)

= $3,939.47 / $1088.65

= $3.6187

1.5 % Change in price of bond = (-1 * Modified duration * % change in YTM in term of basis point)

= ( -1 * 3.446 * 0.2)

= -0.69 %

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3 years ago

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun

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Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

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d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

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3 years ago

As prosperity and economic development rise, ________ increases as well.

crimeas [40]

As prosperity and economic development rise, individualism increases as well.

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4 years ago

The required return on equity for an all-equity firm is 10.0 percent. They are considering a change in capital structure to a de

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Answer:

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Explanation:

From the provided information:

All equity beta = 1

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Then, the new capital structure with levered beta is given by:

new capital structure = All equity beta *(1 + D/E*(1 - tax rate))

= 1*(1 + 0.5*(1 - 40%))

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Therefore, The new cost of capital if this firm changes capital structure is 1.3

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3 years ago

An investor contributes $10,000 to a limited partnership and signs a $40,000 recourse note. In the first year, the investor's di

kondaur [170]

Answer: The loss carried to the next year is $10,000

Explanation:

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The income in the first year = $15,000

Therefore total sum basis = $50,000 initial investment + $15,000 income = $65,000

The cash distributed = $5,000

we deduct the cash distributed from the total sum basis

hence,

remaining basis = $65,000 - $5,000 = $60,000

since the loss = $70,000

therefore,

the remaining loss after the first year = $70,000 - $60,000 = $10,000

so $10,000 will be the unused loss carried to the next year.

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3 years ago