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2 years ago

Pls help me this is very important

Mathematics

1 answer:

Luden [163]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

No because they have different slopes

Step-by-step explanation:

(1 , 2) and (2, 4)

Slope:

m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m=(4-2)/(2-1)

m = 2

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Answer: The value of $(f_\circ g)(x)$ is $4(x+1)^2$ .

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: $f(x) = 4x^2 \text { and } g(x) = x+1$

To find: $(f_\circ g)(x)$

As we know it is composition function which means that g(x) function is in f(x) function.

So we have

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Now substitute the value of g(x) we get

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