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bagirrra123 [75]
2 years ago
8

Which of the following explanations represents why taste aversion breaks the rules of conditioning? A. Taste aversion requires n

o cognitive processes in order to develop. B. Taste aversion is a learned response that does not occur without cognition. C. Taste aversion can develop after only one pairing of a stimulus and response. D. Taste aversion cannot be explained by using conditioning processes. Please select the best answer from the choices provided
Advanced Placement (AP)
2 answers:
Aleks04 [339]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A. Taste aversion requires no cognitive processes in order to develop.

Explanation:

This is true because, unlike other actions that requires cognitive process and conditioning to develop, taste aversion does not. It is simply something that can manifest on its own.

<em>For example, someone who loves chips due to its taste might grew to hate same thereby developing the aversion to those chips due to its taste without any conditioning.</em>

dexar [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

C!

Explanation:

just took the test

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1.       <span>Find the least 3 digit dividend that would give a remainder of 4, in where the divisor is 40
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Since the quotient is not given, it doesn’t matter what the quotient is as long as we have a remainder of 4 when we divide it with 40
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