Which of the following explanations represents why taste aversion breaks the rules of conditioning? A. Taste aversion requires n
o cognitive processes in order to develop. B. Taste aversion is a learned response that does not occur without cognition. C. Taste aversion can develop after only one pairing of a stimulus and response. D. Taste aversion cannot be explained by using conditioning processes. Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A. Taste aversion requires no cognitive processes in order to develop.
Explanation:
This is true because, unlike other actions that requires cognitive process and conditioning to develop, taste aversion does not. It is simply something that can manifest on its own.
<em>For example, someone who loves chips due to its taste might grew to hate same thereby developing the aversion to those chips due to its taste without any conditioning.</em>
