Explanation:
Locke wrote that all individuals are equal in the sense that they are born with certain "inalienable" natural rights. That is, rights that are God-given and can never be taken or even given away. Among these fundamental natural rights, Locke said, are "life, liberty, and property."
Considering the available options for reasons that led to the revolutions in Latin America include the "<em><u>desire for greater political control."</u></em>
<h3>Latin America Revolution</h3>
The Latin American Revolution occurred between 1808 and 1826. During these periods, many Latin American colonies longed for greater political control of their territories.
<h3>Other reasons that led to the revolutions in Latin America include </h3>
- the desire for economic independence through trades
- inspiration of Enlightenment ideas influenced by US and French Revolutions'
- loss of Spanish strength due to wars with France, Britain, and later the United States
- Less ability for Spain to control colonies as there was lesser economic and political power to control the colonies
Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is <u>All of the Above</u> options.
Learn more about the Latin American Revolution here: brainly.com/question/11954278
In what is now and then alluded to as the "
Upset of 1800 Vice President Thomas Jefferson of the Democratic-Republican Party crushed occupant President John Adams of the Federalist Party. The political race was a political realignment that introduced an age of Democratic-Republican administration.
<span>Their owners formed corporations, oversaw complex processes, and sold much more goods.</span>
Answer: 1) one state party that monopolizes all the power (there is no pluralism within society), 2) strong indoctrination in all parts of society and organized by the ministry of information/culture/propaganda (and its apparatus), 3) cenzorship, 4) repressive apparatus, 5) society is "closed" (meaning of "closed society": Karl R. Popper), 6) there must be some official myth turned both to the past and future
Explanation: my answer has to do with the political practice and not with the theory. In fact there were no Communist societies/regimes in this world. There were just 1) Communist philosophies, 2) Communist parties, 3) official Communist propaganda. In spite of all that there are still Communist parties and Communists. Perhaps there are even Marxist historians. Communism has to do with a belief we humans usually have (also thanks to Enlightenment): that each idea can be put into practice. Communist experiment can be viewed as a useful but not successful attempt to put Communist ideas into practice.