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mihalych1998 [28]
3 years ago
5

The dot plot shows the number of hours of daily driving time for 14 school bus drivers. Each dot represents a

Mathematics
1 answer:
hram777 [196]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: 8/14

Step-by-step explanation: make 8/14 into a percent and you have the answer for khan

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Given: m∠A = m∠C = 90° AB ║ DC Prove: ∆ABD ≅ ∆CBD
Genrish500 [490]

Answer:

Angle-Angle-Side (AAS)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given triangles; ΔABD and ΔCBD

  <A = <C = 90^{0} (right angle property)

   AB ║ DC (given)

Then,

    DA ║ CB

   <B ≅ <D (congruent property)

    DB ≅ BD (similarity property)

    <D + <B = <B + <D (complementary angles, and property of triangles)

Therefore by Angle-Angle-Side (AAS),

                 ∆ABD ≅ ∆CBD

4 0
2 years ago
Students are given 3 minutes to complete each multiple-choice question on a test and 8 minutes for each free-response question.
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

8(15 – m)

Step-by-step explanation:

Just Did The Test

7 0
3 years ago
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QUICK!!<br><br> Which equation represents the relationship shown in the graph??
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

y=1/2x

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the graph, all you need is the first point.

Y is at 4 and X is at 2. We can divide y/x to get 4/2=1/2x

3 0
2 years ago
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Given that R=9x+8y find x when y=8 and R=4
Ilya [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

R = 9x + 8y

4 = 9x + 8*8

4 = 9x + 64

Subtract 64 from both sides

4 - 64 = 9x + 64 - 64

-60 = 9x

Divide both sides by 9

-60/9 = 9x/9

-20/3 = x

x = -6 2/3

8 0
3 years ago
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In a certain game of chance, your chances of winning are 0.3. Assume outcomes are independent and that you will play the game fo
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

0.6517

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that in a certain game of chance, your chances of winning are 0.3.

We know that each game is independent of the other and hence probability of winning any game = 0.3 (constant)

Also there are only two outcomes

Let X be the number of games you win when you play 4 times

Then X is binomial with p = 0.3 and n =4

Required probability

= Probability that you win at most once

= P(X\leq 1)\\=P(X=0)+P(X=1)

We have as per binomial theorem

P(X=r) = nCr p^r (1-p)^{n-r}

Using the above the required prob

= 0.6517

3 0
3 years ago
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