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Elina [12.6K]
3 years ago
10

You are given:

Business
1 answer:
Dmitry [639]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.087  = 8.7%

Explanation:

Present value of perpetuity given that payment is done at the end of N-year

= present value * ( 1 + i )^n-1

= 169 * ( 1 + i )^n-1  = 100 / i

∴ ( 1 + i )^n-1 = 100 / 169i  ------- ( 1 )

Given that first payment at the end of N years = 2112.50 hence the present value of 2112.50

= 2112.50( 1 + i )^n-1  = 100 / i  + 100/ i^2 --- ( 2 )

(given that the increment is with a difference of 100 ) and N-1 = number of years

next step : Input equation 1 into equation 2

2112.50 i^2 = 169i [ 100i + 100 ]

19350 i^2 = 16900i

∴ i = 16900 / 19350 = 0.086956 ≈ 0.087

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The current yield on a bond is equal to A. annual interest divided by the par value. B. the yield to maturity. C. the internal r
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

<em>The answer to your question is</em> <em>A. annual interest divided by the par value.</em>

Explanation:

<u><em>I hope this helps and have a good day!</em></u>

6 0
2 years ago
Consider a project with free cash flows in one year of $90,000 in a weak economy or $117,000 in a strong economy, with each outc
zepelin [54]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

Expected cash flow in year 1 : C1 = (0.5 × 90,000) + (0.5 × 117,000)

                                                       = 103,500

Discount rate, r = Project's WACC = 15%

Hence, Value of the project today = Vp = C1 ÷ (1 + r)

                                                                  = 103,500 ÷ (1 + 15%)

                                                                  = $90,000

Value of equity today : Ve0 = Vp - Debt

                                               = 90,000 - 60,000

                                               = 30,000

Value of equity in year 1 = Project cash flows - Debt × (1 + interest rate)

Weak economy = 90,000 - 60,000 × (1 + 5%)

                          = 27,000

Strong economy = 117,000 - 60,000 × (1 + 5%)

                            = 54,000

Expected value of equity in year 1 : Ve1 = (0.5 × 27,000)  + (0.5 × 54,000)

                                                                   = 40,500

Hence, Levered cost of equity, Ke = (Ve1 ÷ Ve0) - 1

                                                         = (40,500 ÷ 30,000 ) - 1

                                                         = 35%

5 0
4 years ago
Which of the following is true? a. As long as the economic pie continually gets larger, no one will have to go hungry. b. Effici
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

C

Explanation: Government policies usually improve upon both equality and efficiency.

5 0
3 years ago
What is marginal cost of capital?
Ghella [55]
Marginal cost of capital (MCC) schedule is a graph that relates the firm's weighted average cost of each unit of capital to the total amount of new capital raised.
4 0
3 years ago
Buff Company had average operating assets of $580,000 and sales of $196,000 last year. If the controllable margin was $26,000, w
nevsk [136]

Answer:

4.5

Explanation:

The average operating assets is $580,000

The sales from last year is $196,000

The controllable margin was $26,000

Therefore the ROI can be calculated as follows

= 26,000/580,000

= 0.045×100

= 4.5

Hence the ROI is 4.5%

5 0
3 years ago
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