Answer:
C.− NA −NA + −NA
Explanation:
As we know that
The depreciation expense is a non cash expense which is to be charged every year and shown in the income statement
Plus it also reduced the value of the asset and stockholder equity as a retained earning but at the same time it increases the expenses due to which the net income reduced and it does not have any impact on the cash flow statements
Hence, the appropriate option is c.
Answer:
$3,400
Explanation:
The computation of predetermined overhead rate for the year is shown below:-
Predetermined Overhead Rate = Estimated Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Estimated Allocation Base × 100
= $119,600 ÷ $92,000 × 100
= 130%
2. The computation of the amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is shown below:-
Overhead Applied = (Opening Value of Direct Material + Purchase of Direct Material - Closing Value of Direct Material) × Predetermined Overhead Rate
= ($24,000 + $140,000 - $17,000) × 130%
= $147,000 × 130%
= $191,100
Overhead Incurred = $106,300 + $8,000 + $18,000 + $15,000 + $8,200 + $39,000
= $194,500
Underapplied overhead = $194,500 - $191,100
= $3,400
Answer:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
Explanation:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below:
On January 31
Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr $800
To Account receivable A/c $800
(Being the written off amount is recorded)
On January 31
Account receivable A/c Dr $300
To Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $300
(Being the reverse entry is made)
On March 9
Cash A/c Dr $300
To Accounts receivable A/c $300
(Being the amount is collected)
Answer:
B. are transfers within the same company.
C. have a direct impact on division profits.
Explanation:
Transfer prices can be defined as the amount of money (prices) that is being charged by a division in a business firm for the goods and services provided to another division within the same business firm. Thus, the output of the selling division automatically becomes the input of the buying or receiving division.
The characteristics of transfer prices includes;
I. Are transfers within the same company.
II. Have a direct impact on division profits.
