Select the correct answer

Southwest Airlines uses its assets very productively. Its turnaround time, or the time that its airplanes sit on the ground whil

mario62 [17]

Answer: Efficiency

Explanation:

Efficiency shows the highest performance level that utilizes the smallest amount of inputs to attain the biggest amount of output. Efficiency is the act of reducing unnecessary resources used in the production of a given output.

Efficiency reduces the waste of resources like energy, physical materials, and time albeit achieving the desired output. It is the aim of every organization to get the best results using the least cost. Southwest Airlines is efficient in its production since it uses its assets and time well.

8 0

3 years ago

Magpie Corporation uses the total cost concept of product pricing. Below is the cost information for the production and sale of

skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

Correct answer is C. $ dollars.

Calculation:

Rate of Retun PU = (21%*605,000)/58,700 = 2.16

Fixed factory overhead PU = 38,500/58,700 = 0.66

Fixed selling and administration PU= 8000/58,700 = 0.14

Variable DM PU = 5.17

Variable Labour PU = 1.88

Variable FOH PU = 1.33

Variable selling and Admin PU = 4.5

By adding all above mentioned per unit cost we get 15 dollars aprox

so

Correct answer is 15 dollar.

3 0

3 years ago

Each of the following items must be considered in preparing a statement of cash flows. Indicate where each item is to be reporte

otez555 [7]

Answer:

Answer 1 - increment in money due will go under working exercises and $4000 will be appeared in negative there since it will decrease the money balance

Answer 2 - issuance of preferred stock will go under financing exercises and since they are giving offers so income will increment by $115 × 10000 = $1150000

Answer - 3 For devaluation Because we start setting up the announcement of incomes utilizing the overall gain figure taken from the salary explanation, we have to alter the net gain figure with the goal that it isn't diminished by Depreciation Expense. To do this, we include back the measure of the Depreciation Expense. So we have to add $14000 to net gain of $90000

For bond premium amortization, its recorded in the working exercises area of the announcement of incomes. Under the roundabout strategy, the amortization of security premium is deducted from net gain since it decreases premium cost and, along these lines, expands net gain without a real money inflow.

Answer - 4 Acquisition of property will go under contributing activities so in the event that we purchase more place where there is $20000, at that point it will lessen the money by $20000

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is it called when the government uses some tool other than money to allocate goods?

erastovalidia [21]

A
Its rationing easily

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A potential investor is seeking to invest $500,000 in a venture, which currently has 1,000,000 million shares held by its founde

Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

a, 15%

b, 150,000

c, $ 3.30

d, = $3,333,333.33

e, $3,833,333.33

Explanation:

To solve this,

Note that we have been given a similar venture to compare to our venture.

The total shareholder's equity for the other venture (P) = $10,000,000 and the net income (E) = $1,000,000

Hence, Price/Earnings (P/E) for other venture = 10,000,000/1,000,000 = 10.0

Now for our venture, Earnings in the 5th year = $500,000

Assuming that P/E ratio for both the ventures to be equal, P/500,000 = 10.0

hence, total shareholder's value for our venture = $5,000,000 --------------- (1)

Now the investor invested $500,000 and expected 50% return after 5 years, hence the investor's value after 5 years would be equal to 500,000 * (1+50%) = $750,000 --------------- (2)

Now percent ownership of venture given to investor = (Value of investor's investment after 5 years/total value of all shareholders after 5 years)

Hence, divide (2) by (1)

percent ownership of venture given to investor = 750,000/5,000,000 = 0.15

or 15%

Therefore Answer to part 'a' is = 15%

Part (b) :For the percentage ownership given to new investor = 15%, total number of shares = 1,000,000

Hence, number of shares issued to new investor = 15% x 1,000,000 = 150,000

Hence, answer to part b = 150,000

Part (c): Amount invested by new investor = $500,000 and number of shares issued to him = 150,000

hence issue price of share = Amount invested / Number of shares issued

= 500,000/150,000 = $3.33

Hence, issue price per share = $3.33

Part (d):

The Pre money valuation is the value of the company before any external funding. In this case, the number of shares held with the founders before the new investor = 1,000,000 and the equity price = $3.33

hence, Value of the venture = 3.33 * 1,000,000 = $3,333,333.33

Hence, pre money valuation of the venture = $3,333,333.33

Part (e): Post money valuation of a company is the value of the company after external funding. In this case, investor invests $500,000 to the venture increasing the value of the company by the same amount.

Hence post money valuation = pre money valuation + Investment

= 3,333,333.33 + 500,000

= 3,833,333.33

Hence, post-money valuation of the venture = $3,833,333.33

7 0

3 years ago