For this case we have the following fraction:
(1-cos ^ 2 (θ)) / (sin ^ 2 (θ))
We must take into account the following trigonometric identity:
cos ^ 2 (θ) + sin ^ 2 (θ) = 1
Therefore rewriting we have:
sin ^ 2 (θ) = 1 - cos ^ 2 (θ)
Substituting in the given fraction we have:
(1-cos ^ 2 (θ)) / (sin ^ 2 (θ))
= (sin ^ 2 (θ)) / (sin ^ 2 (θ))
= 1
Answer:
1
First we expand and combine the terms on the left side. This gives us
12x + 32 -4x + 8 = -8x + 40
8x + 40 = -8x + 40. Because the two sides cancel each other out when you try and bring all the x to one side, the answer is x = 0.
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
See the attached photo please :)
Answer:
Multiply the area of the base by the height and divide by 3.
Step-by-step explanation:
V = (1/3)Bh
where B = area of the base, and
h = height
Answer: Multiply the area of the base by the height and divide by 3.
don't mind the dirty white board lol